Chpt 30: Alterations of CV Function

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4. Even though air is lighter than blood, it can form an embolism and cause the occlusion of a blood vessel.

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5. Raynaud disease is characterized by vasospasms of large peripheral arteries.

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6. Many people with type 2 diabetes mellitus, who were treated with drugs that increased insulin sensitivity, experienced a decline in their blood pressure without taking antihypertensive drugs.

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7. Chronic venous insufficiency can progress to varicose veins and valvular incompetence.

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8. Most body cells are also capable of synthesizing cholesterol.

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9. In high output failure, the heart increases its output, but the body’s metabolic needs are still not met.

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10. Angina pectoris is chest pain caused by myocardial ischemia.

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11. When fluid collects gradually in a pericardial effusion, the pericardium stretches to accommodate the fluid without compressing the heart.

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12. Acute rheumatic fever can develop only as a sequel to pharyngeal infection by group A beta-streptococcus.

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13. An increase in left ventricular end-diastolic volume (LVEDV) in diastolic heart failure may lead to pulmonary edema.

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14. Many cases of mitral valve prolapse are completely asymptomatic.

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15. Chorea or St. Vitus dance is the most definitive sign of rheumatic fever.

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16. Atrial and brain natriuretic peptides are increased in congestive heart failure and may have some protective effect in decreasing preload.

6. What pathologic change occurs to the kidney’s glomeruli as a result of hypertension?

a. Compression of the renal tubules

b. Ischemia of the tubule

c. Increased pressure from within the tubule

d. Obstruction of the renal tubule

7. Atherosclerosis causes an aneurysm by:

a. causing ischemia of the intima.

b. increasing nitric oxide.

c. eroding the vessel wall.

9. What is the usual source of pulmonary emboli?

a. Deep venous thrombosis

b. Endocarditis

c. Valvular disease

d. Left heart failure

10. Which of the following can trigger an immune response within the bloodstream that can result in an embolus?

a. Amniotic fluid

b. Fat

c. Bacteria

d. Air

12. Which of the following statements best describes Raynaud disease?

a. An inflammatory disorder of small and medium-size arteries in the feet and sometimes in the hands

c. A vasospastic disorder of the small arteries and arterioles of the fingers, and less commonly, the toes

13. What changes in veins occur to create varicose veins?

a. An increase in osmotic pressure

b. Damage to the valves within veins

c. Damage to the venous endothelium

d. An increase in hydrostatic pressure

14. Superior vena cava syndrome is a progressive _____ of the superior vena cava that leads to venous distention of the upper extremities and head.

a. inflammation

b. occlusion

c. distention

d. sclerosis

15. A local state in which cells are temporarily deprived of blood supply is defined as:

a. infarction.

b. ischemia.

c. necrosis.

16. The risk of developing coronary artery disease is increased up to threefold by:

a. diabetes mellitus.

b. hypertension.

c. obesity.

d. high alcohol consumption.

17. Which of the following risk factors is NOT associated with coronary artery disease (CAD)?

a. Diabetes mellitus

b. Hypertension

c. Obesity

d. High alcohol consumption

18. Nicotine increases atherosclerosis by the release of:

a. histamine.

b. nitric oxide.

c. angiotensin II.

d. epinephrine.

19. Which of the following is manufactured by the liver and primarily contains cholesterol and protein?

a. Very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDLs)

b. Low-density lipoproteins (LDLs)

c. High-density lipoproteins (HDLs)

d. Triglycerides (TGs)

20. Which elevated value may be protective of the development of atherosclerosis?

a. Very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDLs)

b. Low-density lipoproteins (LDLs)

c. High-density lipoproteins (HDLs)

d. Triglycerides (TGs)

21. Which lab test is an indirect measure of atherosclerotic plaque?

a. Homocysteine

b. Low-density lipoprotein (LDL)

c. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (ESR)

d. C-reactive protein (CRP)

22. Cardiac cells can withstand ischemic conditions and still return to a viable state for how many minutes?

a. 10

b. 15

c. 20

d. 25

23. Which form of angina occurs most often during sleep as a result of vasospasms of one or more coronary arteries?

a. Unstable

b. Stable

c. Silent

d. Prinzmetal

24. The scar tissue that is formed after a myocardial infarction (MI) is most vulnerable to injury between days:

a. 5 to 9.

b. 10 to 14.

c. 15 to 20.

d. 20 to 30.

26. What is the expected electrocardiogram pattern for a person when a thrombus in a coronary artery lodges permanently in the vessel and the infarction extends through the myocardium from the endocardium to the epicardium?

27. Angiotensin II increases the workload of the heart after a myocardial infarction by:

a. increasing the peripheral vascular resistance.

b. causing dysrhythmias as a result of hyperkalemia.

c. reducing the contractility of the myocardium.

28. The pulsus paradoxus that occurs as a result of pericardial effusion is significant because it reflects the impairment of the:

30. Biventricular dilation is the result of which form of cardiomyopathy?

a. Hypertrophic

b. Restrictive

c. Dilated

d. Inflammatory

31. Which form of cardiomyopathy is characterized by ventricular dilation and grossly impaired systolic function, leading to dilated heart failure?

a. Dilated

b. Hypertrophic

c. Septal

d. Dystrophic

32. The hallmark of which form of cardiomyopathy is a disproportionate thickening of the interventricular septum?

a. Dystrophic

b. Hypertrophic

c. Restrictive

d. Dilated

33. Which form of cardiomyopathy is usually caused by an infiltrative disease of the myocardium, such as amyloidosis, hemochromatosis, or glycogen storage disease?

a. Infiltrative

b. Restrictive

c. Septal

d. Hypertrophic

34. Which of the following is a clinical manifestation of aortic stenosis?

a. Jugular vein distention

b. Bounding pulses

c. Peripheral edema

d. Angina

35. Aortic and mitral regurgitation as well as mitral stenosis are caused by:

a. congenital malformation.

b. cardiac failure.

c. rheumatic fever.

d. coronary artery disease.

36. Which predominantly female valvular disorder is thought to have an autosomal dominant inheritance pattern, as well as being associated with connective tissue disease?

a. Mitral valve prolapse

b. Tricuspid stenosis

c. Tricuspid valve prolapsed

d. Aortic insufficiency

37. Which disorder causes a transitory truncal rash that is nonpruritic and pink with erythematous macules that may fade in the center, making them appear as a ringworm?

a. Fat emboli

b. Rheumatic fever

c. Bacterial endocarditis

d. Myocarditis of acquired immunodeficiency syndrome

38. Infective endocarditis is most often caused by:

a. a virus.

b. a fungus.

c. a bacterium.

d. rickettsiae.

39. Genitourinary instrumentation, male gender, and intravenous drug use are risk factors for which of the following?

a. Rheumatic fever

b. Infective endocarditis

c. Mitral regurgitation

d. Aortic regurgitation

40. What is the most common cardiac disorder associated with AIDS resulting from myocarditis and infective endocarditis?

a. Inflammatory cardiomyopathy

b. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

c. Dilated cardiomyopathy

41. A patient is diagnosed with pulmonary disease and elevated pulmonary vascular resistance. Which of the following heart failures may result from this condition?

a. Right heart failure

b. Left heart failure

c. Low-output failure

42. Ventricular remodeling is a result of:

a. left ventricular hypertrophy.

b. right ventricular failure.

c. myocardial ischemia.

d. contractile dysfunction.

43. In systolic heart failure, what effect does angiotensin II have on stroke volume?

a. Increases preload and decreases afterload

b. Increases preload and increases afterload

c. Decreases preload and increases afterload

d. Decreases preload and decreases afterload

1. Aortic stenosis:

a. Impairs flow from left atrium to left ventricle

b. Impairs flow from the left ventricle

c. Backflow into left atrium

d. Backflow into right atrium

e. Backflow into left ventricle

2. Aortic regurgitation:

a. Impairs flow from left atrium to left ventricle

b. Impairs flow from the left ventricle

c. Backflow into left atrium

d. Backflow into right atrium

e. Backflow into left ventricle

3. Mitral stenosis:

a. Impairs flow from left atrium to left ventricle

b. Impairs flow from the left ventricle

c. Backflow into left atrium

d. Backflow into right atrium

e. Backflow into left ventricle

Tricuspid regurgitation:

a. Impairs flow from left atrium to left ventricle

b. Impairs flow from the left ventricle

c. Backflow into left atrium

d. Backflow into right atrium

e. Backflow into left ventricle

Mitral regurgitation:

a. Impairs flow from left atrium to left ventricle

b. Impairs flow from the left ventricle

c. Backflow into left atrium

d. Backflow into right atrium

e. Backflow into left ventricle