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- Brookhaven College
- Environmental And Radiological Health Sciences
- Environmental And Radiological Health Sciences Radr 1201
- Cuffee
- Introduction to Radiologic Sciences and Patient Care - Chpt 9, 22-24
Introduction to Radiologic Sciences and Patient Care - Chpt 9, 22-24
Environmental And Radiological Health Sciences Radr 1201 with Cuffee at Brookhaven College
About this deck
By: Veronica Pina
Created: 2011-07-19
Size: 187 flashcards
Views: 178
Created: 2011-07-19
Size: 187 flashcards
Views: 178
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ALARA
Mnemonic meaning to keep all radiation exposure as low as reasonably achievable.
Becquerel (BQ)
Unit of radioactivity in the International System of Units, equal to one disintegration per second.
Classic Coherent Scattering
Interaction in which a low-energy photon (below 10 kiloelectron volts) is absorbed and released with its same energy, frequency, and wavelength but with a change of direction.
Compton Scattering
Interaction with matter in which a higher-energy photon strikes a loosely bound outer electron, removing it from its shell, and the remaining energy is released as a scattered photon.
Curie (Ci)
Unit of radioactivity defined as the quantity of any radioactive nuclide in which the number of disintegrations per second is 3.7 x 1010
Germ Cells
Cells of an organism whose function is to reproduce the organism (e.g., ovum, spermatozoan)
Gray (Gy)
Unit in the International System used to measure the amount of energy absorbed in any medium; 1 Gy = 100 radiation absorbed doses
International System (SI) of Units
System of units based on metric measurements developed in 1948 and having units used to measure radiation
Kiloelectron Volts (keV)
Units of energy equal to 1000 electron volts
Pair Production
Interaction between matter and a photon possessing a minimum of 1.02 million electron volts of energy producing two oppositely charged particles, a positron and a negatron
Photodisintegration
Direct interaction with the nucleus of the atom, causing a state of excitement within the nucleus, followed by the emission of a nuclear fragment. Occurs in in the nuclear industry.
Photoelectric Interaction
Interaction with matter in which a photon strikes an inner shell electron, causing its ejection from orbit with the complete absorption of the photon's energy.
Radiation
Forms of energy emitted and transferred through matter.
Radiation Absorbed Dose (rad)
Unit used to measue the amount of energy absorbed in any medium; equal to 100 ergs of energy absorbed in 1 g of material.
Radiation Equivalent Man (rem)
Unit of dose equivalence; equal to the product of absorbed dose in rad and a quality factor
Sievert (Sv)
Unit in the International System used to measure the dose equivalence, or biologic effectiveness; of differing radiations; 1 Sv = 100 rem
Somatic Cells
All of the body's cells except germ cells
X-Rays
A form of electromagnetic radiation traveling at the speed of light, with the ability to penetrate matter
Two sources of ionizing radiation
Natural (sun and other naturally occurring radioactive substance present on earth, such as uranium and radium) and man-made (nuclear industry, radionuclides, and medical and dental exposures).
Man-made radiation
A form of electromagnetic radiation that travels at the speed of light.
X-rays
Bundles of energy moving as waves in space, depositing their energy randomly.
Three things needed to produce x-rays
1) a source of electrons, 2)a force to move them rapidly, and 3) something to stop this movement rapidly.
Primary Beam
x-rays are produced when the electrons strike the anode, undergoing an energy conversion that produces both x-rays and heat. This resultant x-ray beam is heterogeneous (has many energies), also known as..........
1) they can be absorbed 2) they can transfer some energy and then scatter, or 3) they can pass through unaffected.
Once the x-rays strike matter, three possibilities exist:
1) classic coherent scattering 2) photoelectric interaction 3) Compton scattering 4) pair production and 5) photodisintegration
x-rays interact with matter in five ways....name them....
Compton scattering and photoelectric interaction
What directly influences the patient's and the occupational worker's exposure?
Classic Coherent (Thomson) scattering
____ _____ ____ occurs when an incoming x-ray photon strikes an atom and is absorbed, causing the atom to become excited.
no energy transfer to the patient
Classic coherent scattering results in.........
Photoelectric interaction
What constitutes the greatest hazard to patients in diagnostic radiography?
Compton Scattering
Most of the occupational worker's exposure to radiation comes from..........
Pair Production and Photodisintegration
What two interactions require high energy photons above 1 million electron volts (MeV)?
Pair Production
For this interaction to occur, this photon approaches the nucleus of the atom and interacts with its force field. The photon disappears and two particles - one negatively charged called a negatron and one positvely charged called a positron replace it.
Roentgen (R)
The quantity of x-radiation or gamma radiation that produces the quantity 2.08 x 109 ion pairs per cubic entimenter (cc) of air, for a total charge of 2.58 x 10 -4 coulombs per kilogram (C/kg). (Coulomb is a quantity of electric charge.)
The Center for Devices and Radiological Health (CDRH), under the direction of the U.S. Food and Drug Administration
Sets and regulates the standards for radiation-producing equipment and continues to research possible ways of minimizing exposure to ionizing radiation.
The National Council of Radiation Protection and Measurements (NCRP)
A not-for-profit organization formed by Congress in 1964 to collect and distribute information regarding radiation awareness and safe practice to the public.
50 mSv (SI) - 5 rem (traditional units)
What is the annual whole-body effective does limits of ionizing radiation for the occupational worker?
one tenth the occupational workers - 5 mSv (SI) - 0.5 rem (traditional units)
What is the whole-body effective does limits of ionizing radiation for the general public?
DNA
What molecule is more at risk when exposed to ionizing radiation?
Somatic Cell - 46 chromosomes or 23 pairs - reproduce through mitosis
What cell performs all the body's functions and possess two of every gene on two different chromosomes? These chromosomes are paired, but each pair is different. How many chromosomes and chromosome pairs does this cell contain? How do these cells reproduce?
Germ Cell - 23 chromosomes - reproduce through meiosis.
What are the reproductive cells of an organism and how may chromosomes do they have? How do these cells reproduce?
Direct hit theory
When a cell absorbs ionizing radiation, what is the theory that proposes that any type of radiation transfers its energy directly to the key molecule it has struck, resulting in the formation of ion pairs or elevation to an increased, excited energy state?
Indirect hits
In x-radiation and gamma radiation, the vast majority of cellular damage is the result of..........
Indirect Hits
In this type of ionizing radiation, key molecules are affected by radiation deposting its energy elsewhere in the cell. Because cells are 80% water, this action occurs when water molecules are ionized. This action produces chemical changes within the cell that alter the internal environment, injuring the cell, which can result in eventual cell death.
Target
Any critical molecule that has undergone some interaction with ionizing radiation, either directly or indirectly.
They determined that mitotic activity and specific characteristics of each cell affected and how the cell exhibited radiation damage. Cells are more sensitive to radiation during active division.
To study the cell's response to radiation, a method of classification according to sensitivity was developed by Bergonie and Tribondeau in 1906....what was this?
Basal cells of the skin, crypt cells of the small intestine, and germ cells (reproductive cells).
What are examples of radiosensitive cells?
Ancel and Vitemberger
Who stated that all cells posses the same sensitivity to radiation; the time of expresion of injury is the factor that differs. This factor depends on mitosis and the external conditions in which the cell is placed. Therefore rapidly dividing cells demonstrate the injury sooner and only appear as though they are more sensitive to radiation than those whose mitotic rate is slower?
Organs composed of parenchymal cells that rapidly divide such as the skin or small intestine. (The parenchyma is thus opposed to the connective tissue framework, or stroma, of an organ. The parenchyma of the testis consists of what are called the seminiferous tubules.)
Which cells exhibit injury sooner?
They die before beginning mitosis, delay entering mitosis, or fail to divide at their normal rate.
What are some of the ways that cells respond to radiation?
How sensitive the cell is to radiation, the type of damage sustained, the kind of radiation (particulate or electromagnetic), the exposure rate, and the total dose given.
What are the criteria for which cells try to repair the damage sustained through absorption of ionizing radiation?
Acute radiation syndrome
The total body response of any organism to radiation depends on the effect on all the systems of the body. This response only occurs when the organism is exposed fully (total body) to an external source of radiation given in a few minutes. What is this called?
Prodromal stage, latent period, and manifest stage
Three general stages of response exist for each actute radiation syndrome.. What are these stages?
Prodromal stage
What stage of radiation exposure is commonly referred to as the nausea, vomiting, and diarrhea (NVD) stage?
Latent Period
What stage of radiation exposure refers to when the organism feels well, but during this time the body is undergoing biologic changes that will lead to the final stage?
Manifest Stage
What stage of radiation exposure refers to the time when the body feels the full effects of the exposure, leading to either recovery or death?
1) bone marrow syndrome 2) gastrointestinal syndrome 3) central nervous system syndrome
What are the 3 radiation syndromes?
Total Body
What exposure rate results in infection, hemorrhage and anemia?
Gastrointestinal syndrome
This syndrome results from doses of 10 - 50 Gy (1000 - 5000 rad). Individuals experience massive diarrhea, nausea, vomiting and fever when subjected to these doses.
Bone Marrow Syndrome
This syndrome occurs from doses of 2 - 10 GY (200 - 100 rad).
Central Nervous System Syndrome
This syndrome occurs from doses above 50 Gy (5000 rad). The individual will experience convulsions, coma, and eventual death from increased intracranial pressure.
Somatic effects and genetic effects
What are the two late effects that can develop over a long period of time after exposure to radiation?
Cataract formation and carcinogenesis
What are the two most common somatic late effects from exposure to radiation?
1)Skin cancer and leukemia from prolonged exposure to ionizing radiation 2) Watch-dial painters developed osteosarcoma (bone cancer) by putting their paint brushes in their mouths to draw the tip to a point 3) Lung cancer in miners who inhaled radioactive dust while digging for uranium
What were 3 documented somatic effects that were recorded?
Time, Distance, and Shielding
What are the cardinal principles of protection to minimize patient exposure?
82
What is the atomic number of the lead used as shields?
1) flat contact shields 2) shaped contact shields 3) shadow shields
What are the 3 basic types of shields?
Flat contact shield
These shields are made of a combination of lead and vinyl and are placed directly over the gonads of the patient.
Shaped Contact Shield
These shields are cup shaped and designed specifically to protect the gonads of male patients.
Shadow Shields
These shields are mounted to the side of the collimator of the x-ray tube on a flexible extension arm. They can be manipulated to extend into the path of the beam and cast a shadow on the patient, indicating the area being protected.
Beam restriction, film-screen combinations, technical factor selection, and filtration.
What other factors specific to the production of x-rays can be manipulated with the purpose of minimizing patient exposure?
Aluminum
What is the most common material used in filtration?
1) Minimizing the time spent in the room when ionizing radiation is being produced 2) using the greatest possible distance fromthe source of exposure 3) placing a shield between the worker and the radiation source
What are the 3 principles used in reducing the occupational worker's exposure to radiation?
Distance
What is the best measure of protection for an occupational worker?
The intensity of radiation varies inversely with the square of the distance. (Increasing the distance from the source of the x-ray beam greatly reduces the quantity of radiation that reaches the radiographer.)
What is the principle of the inverse square law in relation to the occupational worker?
0.5 rem (5 mSv)
What is the dose limit for a pregnant radiographer?
The Optically Stimulated Luminescence (OSL) dosimeter, film badge, thermoluminescent dosimeter (TLD), and pocket dosimeter
What are 4 common personnel-monitoring devices available for radiographers?
Optically Stimulated Luminescence (OSL)
What is the most common personnel-monitoring devices available for radiographers and is typically worn for 2 months?
Optically Stimulated Luminescence (OSL)
Which personnel-monitoring device can detect x-rays and gamma radiation in the range of 5 keV to in excess of 40 MeV? Dose measurement range is from 1 mrem to 1000 rem.
Film Badge
Which personnel-monitoring device can detect x-rays and gamma radiation as low as 10 mrem (0.1 mSv) and is usually worn for 1 month?
Thermoluminescent Dosimeters (TLD)
Which personnel-monitoring device can detect x-rays radiation as low as 5 mSv)?
Pocket Dosimeters
Which personnel-monitoring device is subject to false readings and does not provide a permanent record?
Autonomy
Person's self-reliance, independence, liberty, rights, privacy, individual choice, freedom of the will, and the self-contained ability to decide.
Beneficense
Doing of good; active promotion of goodness,kindness, and charity
Caring
To care for; an emotional commitment to and a willingness to act on behalf of a person with whom a caring relationship exists.
Codes of Ethics
Articulated statement of role morality as seen by the members of a profession.
Confidentiality
Belief that health-related information about individual patients should not be revealed to others; maintenance of
Consequentialism
Belief that the worth of actions is determined by their ends or consequences; actions are right or wrong according to the balance of their good and bad consequences.
Duties
Obligations placed on individuals, groups, and institutions by reason of the so-called moral bond of our interdependence with others.
Ethical Dilemmas
Situations requiring moral judgement between two or more equally problem-fraught alternatives; two or more competing moral norms are present, creating a challenge about what to do.
Ethical Outrage
Gross violation of commonly held standards of decency or human rights.
Ethical Theories
Bodies of systematically related moral principles used to resolve ethical dilemmas.
Ethics
Systematic study of rightness and wrongness of human conduct and character as known by natural reason.
Ethics of Care
Ethical reflections that emphasize an intimate personal relationship value system that includes such virtues as sympathy, compassion, fidelity, discernment, and love.
Fidelity
Strict observance of promises or duties; loyalty and faithfulness to others.
Justice
Equitable, fair, or just conduct in dealing with others.
Laws
Regulations established by government and applicable to people within a certain political subdivision.
Legal Rights
Rights of individuals or groups that are established and guaranteed by law.
Liberal Individualism
Basis for rights-based ethical theory; each individual is protected and allowed to pursue personal projects.
Moral Principles
General, universal guides to action that are derived from so-called "basic moral truths" that should be respected unless a morally compelling reason exists not to do so; also referred to as ethical principles.
Moral Rights
Rights of individuals or groups that exist separately from governmental or institutional guarantees; usually assertd based on moral principles or rules.
Moral Rules
Statements of right conduct governing individual actions.
Morals
Generally accepted customs, principles, or habits of right living and conduct in a society and the individual's practice in relation to these.
Nonconsequentialism
Belief that actions themselves, rather than consequences, determine the worth of actions; actions are right or wrong according to the morality of the acts themselves.
Nonmaleficence
Ethical principle that places high value on avoiding harm to others.
Norms
Standards set by individuals or groups of individuals
Principle-Based ethics
Use of moral principles as a basis for defending a chosen path of action in resolving an ethical dilemma; also see Principlism
Principlism
Belief system based on a set of moral principles that are embedded in a common morality.
Professional Ethic
Publicly displayed ethical conduct of a profession, usually embedded ina code of ethics; affirms the professional as an independent, autonomous, responsible decision maker.
Professional Ethics
Internal controls of a profession based on a human values or moral principles
Professional Etiquette
Manners and attitudes generally accepted by members of a profession.
Rights
Justified cliams that an individual can make on individuals, groups, or society; divided into legal rights and moral rights
Rights-Based Ethics
Belief that individual rights provide the vial protection of life, liberty, expression and property.
Social Contract
Relationship that exists when two mutually dependent groups in a society recognize certain expectations of eath other and conduct their affairs accordingly
Standards of Professional Conduct
Practice behaviors that are defined by members of a profession
Values
Ideals and customs of a society toward which the members of a group have an affective regard; a value may be a quality desirable as an end in itself
Value System
Collection or set of values that an individual or group has as each person's personal guide
Veracity
Duty to tell the truth and avoid deception
Virtues
Traits of character that are socially valued, such as courage
Virtue-Based Ethics
Ethical theory that emphasizes the agents who perform actions and make choices; character and virtue form the framework of this ethical theory
Ambulatory Patient Classifications (APCs)
Classification system of patients based on the International Classification of Disease, 9th edition, Clinical Modification codes for diagnoses, current procedural terminology evaluation and management codes, and procedure codes, age, sex, and visit disposition; used for reimbursement for health care provided in the hospital outpatient setting
Current Procedural Terminology, 4th Edition (CPT-4)
Comprehensive listing of medical terms and codes for the uniform designationn of diagnostic and therapeutic procedures; used in the United States for coding for physician reimbursement
Diagnosis-Related Groups (DRGs)
System that categorizes into payment groups patients who are medically related with respect to diagnosis and treatment and statistically similar with regard to length of stay
Electronic Health Record (EHR)
Electronic health record system generally considered as the portal through which clinicians access a patient's health record, order treatments or therapy, and document care delivered to patients; allows providers to gather multiple types of data about a patient (clinical, financial, administrative, and research)
Healthcare Facilities Accreditation Program (HFAP)
Accreditation program of the American Osteopathic Association that accredits health care facilities in the United State
Health Information Management Practitioners
Term used to encompass both registered health information administrators and registered health information technicians as individuals with either of these credentials who hold a variety of positions within the health information management profession
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA)
Federal legislation passed to improve the efficiency and effectiveness of the health care system; components that affect health information include privacy, security, and the establishment of standards and requirements for the electronic transmission of certain health information
Health Records
Permanent or long-lasting documentation of all patient care information that applies to individual patients
Intenational Classification of Diseases, 9th edition, Clinical Modification (ICD-9-CM)I
The numeric codes are the basis for the DRG to which are inpatient is classified. Universal statistical classification system used throughout the United States and the world for coding and reporting diagnoses and procedures
Joint Commission (formerly The Joint Commission) on the Accreditation of Healthcare Organizations
Organization that accredits hospitals and other health care institutions in the United States
Performance Improvement
Process by which the quality of the care and services provided to patients within a health care facility is monitored and evaluated
Prospective Payment System (PPS)
System for Medicare patients by which a predetermined level of reimbursement is established before the services are provided
Registered Health Information Administrators (RHIAs)
Professionals who possesses the expertise to develop, implement, and/or manage individual, aggregate, and public health care data in support of patient safety and privacy, as well as the confidentiality and security of health information
Registered Health Information Technicians (RHITs)
Professionals who are technical experts in health data collection, analysis, monitoring, maintenance, and reporting activities in accordance with established data-quality principles, legal and regulatory standards, and professional best practice guidelines
Assault
Any willful attempt or threat to inflict injury on the person of another, when coupled with the apparent present ability to do so, and any intentional display of force such as would give the victim reason to fear or expect immediate bodily harm
Battery
Any unlawful touching of another that is without justification or excuse
Defamation
Holding up a person to ridicule, scorn, or contempt in a respectable and considerable part of the community
False Imprisonment
Conscious restraint of the freedom of a person without proper authorization, privilege, or consent
Fraud
Intentional perversion of truth for the purpose of inducing a person to rely on the false information to his or her detriment
Informed Consent
Person's agreement to allow something to happen (such as surgery) that is based on a full disclosure of the facts needed to make the decision intelligently - that is, knowledge of risks involved, alternatives, benefits, and other information needed by a reasonable person to make a decision
Negligence
Failure to do something that a reasonable person guided by the ordinary considerations that ordinarily regulate human affairs would do, or the doing of something a reasonable and prudent person would not do.
Res Ipsa Loquitur
Meaning the thing speaks for itsself; legal theory requiring three elements 1)that the type of injury did not occur except for negligence 2) that the activity was under the complete control of the defendant,and 3) that the plaintiff did not contribute to his or her own injury in any way
Respodeat Superior
Meaning let the superior respond or the master speak for the servant; the physician, supervisor, or employer may be liable in certain cases for the wrongful acts of employees or subordinates
Tort
Private or civil wrong or injury, other than breach of contract, for which the court provides a remedy in the form of an action for damages.
Centers for Medicare and Medical Services (CMS)
Who authorizes the Joint Commission on the Accreditation of Healthcare Organization and the American Osteopathic Association via its Healthcare Facilities Accreditation Program (HFAP) to survey hospitals under Medicare?
Informed Consent
___ ___ implies that the patient has been informed of the procedures or operation to be performed, of the risks involved, and of the possible consequences.
Incident Report
____ ____ contain information relative to patient incidences or even occurrences. This documentaion would include information relative to the actual equipment failure rather than what happened to the patient because of the equipment failure.
Advance Beneficiary Notice (ABN)
If medicare doesn't cover a procedure, then the patient must be notified and is required to sign this assuming rsponsibility for payment when Medicare denies the clain. What is the document to be signed?
Joint Commission
____ ____ requires that all health record entries be dated and authenticated and their authors identified.
Do-Not-Use Abbreviation list
in 2005 the Joint Commissin created this list as it includes commonly misinterpreted or confusing abbreviations.
Other health care areas in which radiology reports are often generated
Emergency department encounters, ambulatory surgery centers, ambulatory care facilities, physician offices, and urgent care centers.
The DRG System
The concept that patients fall into statistically similar, diagnostically related groups.
Grouper
The health information professional uses the diagnoses and procedure terminology provided by the physician and codes this information into the numbering system of the International Classification of Diseases, 9th edition, Clinical Modification (ICD-9-CM). Using a computer program, the health information practitioner computes the patient's DRG. What is the computer program used?
Current Procedural Terminology, 4th edition (CPT-4)
What codes are used to code procedures for outpatient encounters and coding for ancillary services such as radiology and laboratory?
Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services (CMS)
On October 1, 2007, this organization implemented the Medical Severity DRG system (MS-DRG), which takes into account the level of severity of a patient's condition and the amount of resources used to care for him or her.
70010 - 79999
Radiology coes in CPT include diagnostic and therapeutic radiology, nuclear medicine, diagnostic ultrasonography and radiation oncology. The code numbers for the radiology procedures fall into what range?
Index of Radiology Diagnoses (IRD)
Radiology departments may use this index of the American College of Radiology to classify radioloic specimens. This information can be used for statistics, for follow-up, or for evaluation of patient care.
Performance Improvement
A process by which the quality of the care and services provided to patients within a health care facility are monitored and evaluated.
Basic principle of the law between patients and health care practitioners defined in Schloendorf v. Society of New York Hospital in 1914
"Every human being of adult years and sound mind has a right to determine what shall be done with his own body, and a surgeon who performs an operation without his patient's consent commits an assault, for which he is liable in damages."
Schloendorf v. Society of New York Hospital in 1914 doctrine
1) protects individual autonomy 2) protects the patient's status as a human being 3) avoids fraud and duress 4) encourages health care practitioners to consider their decisions carefully 5)fosters rational decision making by the patient 6) involves the public in medicine.
Necessary processes to ensure the patient receives the best possible care
Medicine is looking to see that the patient's physical needs are being met through diagnosis and treatment, and law attempts to control the abuse of patients and to ensure that they are compensated for injuries received at the hands of negligent health care practitioners.
3 Forms of Law
1) Constitution of the United States 2) Statutes and regulations enacted by legislative bodies or administrative agencies 3) Case law (decided on a case-by-case basis either by a judge or a jury)
Negligence
What is the most common claim made against health care providers and organizations and is generally determined in courts by judges and juries?
Case Law
What law dictates the fate of the health care practitioner who has been sued for medical negligence or malpractice?
The determinative areas established for the standard of care for a particular practice
Federal and state regulations, job descriptions, curriculum guides, course goals and objectives, professional customs, and standards of practice.
General definition of the Standard of Care
The degree of skill (proficiency), knowledge, and care ordinarily possessed and employed by members in good standing within the profession.
Practice Standards Council
A governing body established with the purpose of continually reviewing and updating the Practice Standards, as well as researching practice questions and rendering opinions as to the current standard as determined by literature, statute, regulation, and accepted practice.
10%
What percentage of all medical negligence claims are somehow related to diagnostic imaging, either by improper diagnosis or by injuries to patients sustained during diagnostic procedures?
An assault
What may the patient claim if a technologists threatens a patient to repeat a painful examination if the patient does not hold still?
Battery
What may the patient claim if he thinks that the technologist has touched him or her in an offensive way?
2 types of defamation
1) slander, which involves the spoken word 2) libel, which involves written or published comments or pictures.
Libel
Writing inappropriate comments about a patient in the medical record or indicating that a professional colleague has done something wrong,such as failing to treat a patient properly or failing to order the proper procedure.
Fraud
A willful and intentional misrepresentation of facts that may cause harm to an individual or result in loss of an individual right or property.
Fraud
What may arise when a pathologic condition is missed on a radiography or when a study is not completed with optimal images and a health care provider attempts to cover up the error by destroying or altering images or records; altering personnel records, changing patient's medical records, billing for procedures that were not performed, or altering other documentation in an attempt to mislead or cover up some wrongdoing.
What the plaintiff must show to prevail in a claim of fraud
1) an untrue statement, known to be untrue by the party making it,was made so as to mislead 2) the injured party relied on the statement 3) damages were incurred as a result of the reliance
Invasion of privacy
What claim may be made if a person's records are released or used in a way contrary to the standard established by the health care community?
HIPAA
Calls for the standardization of electronic data interchange, the protection of confidentiality, and the security of individually identifiable health information. Establish guidelines for the storage, access, and transission of individuals' health information.
Fines or imprisonment
What may occur if the misuse of health information by a health professional is established based off the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act of 1996 (HIPAA)?
Proof required for a patient (plaintiff) to recover damages for injuries sustained because of alleged negligence.
1) a duty to the patient by the health care practitioner (in medical-related cases that is defined as the standard of care) 2) breach of this duty by an act or by failing to perform some act (deviation from the standard of care) 3) a compensable injury 4)a causal relationship between the injury and the breach of duty
Negligence
What claim may a patient have if while transporting a patient back to his room and or emergency dept. the technologist fails to raise the siderails on the cart and the patient falls and breaks a hip?
Negligence
What claim may a patient have if the radiographer fails to properly asses an individual before administering a contrast medium, and after administration a situation arises that requires medical intervention and causes a long-term complication for the patient?
Res Ipsa Loquitur, respondeat superior, and corporate liability
Theories that attorneys may use to switch the burden of proof from the plaintiff to the defendant or to bring additional parties into the litigation.
Res Ipsa Loquitur
Translates to the thing that speaks for itself and describes how a patient is injured through no fault of his or her own while in the complete control of another.
Res ipsa loquitur
What kind of case may a technologist be involved in if a patient sustains a burn from a portable machine when the field light remains on while in contact with the patient's skin?
Corporate liability
The courts have expanded this concept to include: 1) Duty of reasonable care in the selection and retention of employees and medical staff 2)Duty of reasonable care in the maintenance and use of equipment 3) Availablity of equipment and services
Corporate Liability
Corporations may be required to intervene if suboptimal care is being provided by one of its employees, independent contractors, or equipment manufacturers as a protection of ______ _______.
3 Requirements for Informed Consent
1) legal age and mentally competent 2) offer consent voluntarily 3) must be adequately informed about the medical care being offered.ny
Must stop the procedure at a point where the patient will not be injured in any way.
If a patient consents and then revokes consent during the procedure, the parties involved must recognize the patient's right and do what?
About this deck
By: Veronica Pina
Created: 2011-07-19
Size: 187 flashcards
Views: 178
Created: 2011-07-19
Size: 187 flashcards
Views: 178
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