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Lateral - Outside
These cells stand guard against toxins, microbes and other pathogens.
Which one of the following bone cells would have the greatest number of lysosomes?
___ are the only retinal cells that produce action potentials.
This image shows structures of the skin and subcutaneous tissue. What does "3" represent?
This layer of the epidermis consists of up to 30 layers of dead cells.
The fastest rate of mitosis happens in the
The ___ is absent from most epidermis.
a. stratum basale
This image shows structures of the skin and subcutaneous tissue. What does "1" represent?
This image shows structures of the skin and subcutaneous tissue. ________ are found in the layer of the skin represented as "2".
Layer "1" represents __, whereas layer "2" represents ____.
This image shows strata and cell types of the epidermis. ________ represents a living keratinocyte belonging to the stratum basale.
This image shows strata and cell types of the epidermis. "2" represents a _________, whereas "4" represents a _________.
Which of the following are associated with the sense of touch?
Fingerprints left on things we touch are associated with
Calluses or corns are the result of accelerated multiplication of
Leather is mostly made of the __________ layer of the dermis, which is very tough due to the high concentration of ____________ fibers.
The hypodermis usually has an abundance of this tissue.
These are all tissues that are a part of a long bone except
The skin discoloration most likely to suggest physical abuse is
The reddish color of the skin of the lips is primarily due to this pigment.
This skin color is most likely to result from anemia.
Bilirubin causes a skin discoloration called
Ethnic differences in skin color are primarily caused by differences in
A ___ is an elevated patch of melanized skin.
A pilus is
The hair present only prenatally is called ___________, most of which is replaced by ____________ by the time of birth.
Blood vessels in the _________ provide a hair with its sole source of nutrition.
This image shows the structure of a hair and its follicle. What does "1" represent?
The contraction of the piloerector muscles (pilomotor muscle or arrector pili) in humans causes
A hair cycle consists of three developmental stages in the following order:
Each hair grows in an oblique epithelial tube called a(an)
Excessive hairiness is called
Variations in hair color arise from the relative amounts of
The narrow zone of dead skin overhanging the proximal end of a nail is called
Mitosis in the __________ accounts for growth of the nail.
This image shows the anatomy of a fingernail. What does "2" represent?
Secretions from __________ glands contribute to the acid mantle that inhibits bacterial growth on the skin.
This image shows cutaneous glands. The name of structure "1" is
The cutaneous glands concerned with cooling the body are
Mammary glands are modified ___________ glands that develop within the female breast, whereas ____________ are present in both sexes.
The oil of your scalp is secreted by __________ glands associated with the hair follicles.
____________ is/are formed partly from the secretions of glands in the external ear canal.
Which two strata of the epidermis are most susceptible to cancer?
The "ABCD rule" for recognizing early signs of malignant melanoma refers to the following characteristics of the lesion:
The least common but most deadly type of skin cancer is
Basal cell carcinoma initially affects cells of the stratum __________, whereas melanoma arises from ___________.
_____________ burns involve the epidermis, all of the dermis, and often some deeper tissue.
The most immediate threat to the life of a patient with severe burns is
The skeleton does not
Osseous tissue is a(an) ____________ tissue.
The expanded head at each end of a long bone is called
This image shows the anatomy of a long bone. What does "1" represent?
This image shows the anatomy of a long bone. What does "4" represent?
This image shows the anatomy of a long bone. What does "5" represent?
Spicules and trabeculae are found in
Intramembranous ossification produces the
Wolff's law of bone explains the effect of
What is a sesamoid bone?
______ are not facial bones.
All of these contribute to the wall of the orbit except
There are two of each of the following bones except for the unpaired
This image shows a lateral view of the skull. What does "2" represent?
This image shows a lateral view of the skull. What does "2" represent?
A bone is covered externally with a sheath called ______________, whereas the internal surface is lined with _____________.
____________ are bone-forming cells.
When ____________ become enclosed in lacunae, they become cells called _____________.
Which of these is an inorganic component of the bone matrix?
____ provide(s) hardness to bones, whereas ____ provide(s) some degree of flexibility.
This image shows the histology of osseous tissue. Label "2" represents ____________, which is(are) ____________.
___________ have a ruffled border with many deep infoldings of the plasma membrane, whereas ____________ have long, thin, fingerlike cytoplasmic processes.
________ are common in compact bone but rarely seen in spongy bone.
Red bone marrow does not contain
What would you find in the marrow cavity of the diaphysis of an adult humerus (arm bone)?
In endochondral ossification, the precursor connective tissue is _____________, which is replaced by bone.
The _____________ is a marginal zone of the epiphyseal plate where, in children and adolescents, bone can be seen replacing the hyaline cartilage.
Achondroplastic dwarfism is a hereditary condition in which the long bones of the limbs fail to elongate normally because of reduced hyperplasia and hypertrophy of cartilage in the
Chondrocytes multiply in this zone of the metaphysis.
Bone elongation is a result of
A growing long bone in a child has only two areas of cartilage at the epiphysis. These two areas are
Mature bones are remodeled throughout life by employing
_______ is the process of dissolving bone and returning its minerals to the bloodstream.
Which of the following exemplifies a positive feedback process happening in bone mineral deposition?
Arteriosclerosis is one example of ectopic ossification, which means
Phosphate is necessary for all of the following except
Calcium plays an essential role in all of the following except
Parathyroid hormone (PTH) does not
______ is synthesized by the combined action of the skin, kidneys, and liver, and is important to the deposition of bone.
Which of these is not an effect of calcitriol?
______ does not put women at risk of hypocalcemia.
Blood Ca2+ deficiency stimulates __________ secretion, which leads to _____________.
Hypocalcemia can cause
If a thyroid tumor secreted an excessive amount of calcitonin, we would expect
Osteoporosis is most common in elderly women because of the lack of ___________, which would otherwise inhibit ____________.
The result of calcium and phosphate levels in blood too low for normal deposition is a softness of the bones called ___________ in children and ___________ in adults.
_______ affects more people than any other bone disease.
A fracture in which the bone is broken into three or more pieces is called a __________ fracture.
Bone protrudes through skin in a fracture called
A pathologic fracture
A soft callus forms during
Which of the following is the correct sequence of events in the healing of a bone fracture?
a. bone remodeling → soft callus formation → hard callus formation → hematoma formation
Patches of fibrocartilage formed in the healing of a fracture are called ________, whereas the bony collar formed around the fracture is called _________.
All the bones listed below belong to the axial skeleton, except ___________, which belongs to the appendicular skeleton.
All the bones listed below belong to the appendicular skeleton except the
The average number of bones in the adult skeleton is
Why does an adult not have as many bones as a child?
A rounded knob that articulates with another bone is called a
Any bony prominence is called
A hole through a bone that usually allows passage for nerves and blood vessels is called a
______ is not found as a part of the temporal bone.
The _________ houses the pituitary gland (hypophysis) and is found in the ____________.
This image shows an inferior view of the skull. What does "2" represent?
a. mandibular fossa
Most of the bones of the skull are connected by immovable joints called
The ______________ suture separates the temporal bone from the parietal bone.
These are bones associated with the skull but not considered part of it except
Fontanels are ____________ in an infant.
Vertebrae are divided into five groups, usually _______ cervical, ____________ thoracic, _________ lumbar, ______ sacral, and ______ coccygeal.
The most common deformity is an abnormal lateral curvature called
______ does not belong to a representative vertebra.
Which intervertebral disc is largest?
In a herniated ("ruptured" or "slipped") disc, the ring of fibrocartilage called the ___________ cracks and the _____________ oozes out.
The axis is the only vertebra with a
These are all features found in a typical thoracic vertebra except.. a. the body has facets as points of articulation for ribs.
The spinous process has a bifid tip in most _______________ vertebrae.
The _____________ belongs to the thoracic cage, whereas the _____________ belongs to the pectoral girdle.
The manubrium belongs to
Rib 7 is a
The ___ can be easily palpated between the clavicles.
Costal cartilages connect
_______ do(does) not belong to the pectoral girdle.
Unlike other joints, a ________________ does not join two bones to each other.
What do sutures, gomphoses, and syndesmoses have in common?
Which of these is a first-class lever?
The radioulnar joint is a
Which is the most stable joint?
The acromion is a feature of the
The brachium contains the _____, whereas the antebrachium contains the _____.
The glenoid cavity of the ______ articulates with the head of the _______.
The right hand and wrist of an adult has _____________ bones.
This image shows the adult skeleton. What does "2" represent?
This image shows the adult skeleton. What does "4" represent?
This image shows the adult skeleton. What does "2" represent?
This image shows the adult skeleton. What does "4" represent?
Spines of the _____ form a part of the pelvic outlet.
The acetabulum articulates with the
A newborn passes through the __________________ during birth.
The ______________ does not belong to the femur.
You cannot palpate the ________________ on a living person.
Male and female pelves differ in the following features except
The study of joint structure, function, and dysfunction is called
These are the major categories of joints, except
_______ are the least movable joints.
_______ are the most movable joints.
The radioulnar joint is a
Coronal, sagittal, and lambdoid are examples of
The epiphysis and diaphysis of a long bone in a child are bound by a
The joint between costal cartilage 1 and the sternum is a ____________, whereas the other costal cartilages are joined to the sternum by ____________ joints.
The joint between L2 and L3 is a
Some joints become synostoses by
These are all anatomical components of a synovial joint, except
This image shows the structure of a simple synovial joint. What does "2" represent?
A _________________ is a sac of fluid associated with a synovial joint.
Which of the following is true of joints that are first-class levers?
Range of motion of a joint is normally determined by the following factors except
_______ joint is a multiaxial joint.
The proximal and middle phalanges form ________________ joints.
The metacarpophalangeal joints at the base of the fingers are ________________ joints.
When you walk up the stairs your hip and knee joints _____________ to lift your body weight.
When you hold out your hands with the palms up, ______________ of your wrists will tip your palms toward you.
Raising an arm to one side of the body to stop a taxi is an example of ______________ of the shoulder.
Normal chewing in humans involves ________________ of the mandible.
Suppose you cup your hands to hold some water. This action would most likely involve
A man raises his chin to shave his neck. This action is
If you stand on tiptoes to reach something high, you are performing ______________ at the ankle.
A baseball player winding up for the pitch ______________ the shoulder.
Your shoulders _______________ when you reach to push a revolving door.
A monoaxial joint like the elbow is capable of which one of the following movements?
To raise your hand and place it on the shoulder of a person standing in front of you involves _______________ of the shoulder.
Suppose you are looking at the back of your hand and you turn your fingers upward to admire a new ring. A motion employed in this would be
_______ tips the soles medially, like facing each other, and ____ tips the soles laterally, away from each other.
What structure in the knee prevents hyperextension?
The ________ deepens the socket of the hip joint and helps stabilize the joint.
Which is the largest and most complex diarthrosis in the body?
Radial (lateral) and ulnar (medial) collateral ligaments restrict side-to-side movements of the_______ joint.
The rotator cuff tendons enclose the shoulder joint on all sides except _______________, which explains in part the nature of most shoulder dislocations.
The talocrural joint is a meeting of
This image shows an anterior view of the right tibiofemoral joint. What does "3" represent?
This image shows an anterior view of the right tibiofemoral joint. What does "5" represent?
The ________ does not belong to the tibiofemoral joint.
The ________ is not found in the elbow.
The _______ bursa does not belong to the glenohumeral joint.
These are all structures found in the shoulder joint except
The jaw joint is the articulation of
The temporomandibular joint is a _______________ joint.
The study of the muscular system is known as
All of the following are functions of muscles except
Muscle fibers are arranged in bundles called
What separates groups of muscles?
Which of the following describes an appearance of red muscular tissue emerging directly from bone rather than being separated from it by an obvious tendon?
The rectus femoris is what muscle shape?
The semitendinosus is an example of what muscle shape?
The rectus abdominis is a ________ muscle, while the rectus femoris is a ______ muscle.
What term best describes the relationship between the pronator quadratus and supinator?
Which term best describes the relationship of the deltoid and SITS muscles during shoulder abduction?
Which term below best describes the deltoid?
The occipitalis and frontalis are connected via the
A point of convergence for several muscles of the lower face is called the
Which one of these muscles helps to open the mouth (depress the mandible)?
Which of the following muscles of mastication would be responsible for mandibular elevation.
Which of the following extensors of the head is the most superficial?
Which of the following muscles of facial expression is not innervated by the facial nerve?
The ________ originates on the zygomatic arch and inserts on the angle of the mandible.
What is(are) the innervation(s) of the palatoglossus?
In a whiplash injury, the neck undergoes forced hyperextension then hyperflexion, injuring multiple muscles in the neck. Which of the following muscles would be injured during the hyperextension phase of the injury?
Which of the following correctly states the origin and insertion of the sternocleidomastoid?
After taking their wedding vows, a bride and groom often ceremonially use which of the following muscles before walking away from the altar?
Which muscle originates at the manubrium, inserts on the thyroid cartilage, and aids in singing low notes?
Which of the following muscles is the prime mover for inhalation?
Which muscle of respiration is innervated by the phrenic nerve?
The deepest muscle of the abdominal wall is the
Which of the following muscles is not externally visible on the trunk of the body?
The aponeurosis of the external oblique forms the ________ at its inferior margin.
While sitting at your desk, you drop your pencil onto the floor. You bend over to pick up the pencil. In order to straighten up and continue your exam you must use which of the following muscles?
Unilateral contraction of which muscle causes ipsilateral flexion of the lumbar vertebral column?
Tendinous intersections divide the _______ into segments externally visible on the abdomen of a well-muscled person.
The muscles that laterally rotate and depress the scapula, as in shrugging and lowering the shoulders, are the
Which cranial nerve innervates the sternocleidomastoid and trapezius?
The serratus anterior is innervated by which nerve?
This figure shows the anatomy of a nerve. What does "3" represent?
A ___ is a cordlike organ composed of numerous ___.
The ___ is not a motor cranial nerve.
This is the largest of the cranial nerves and the most important sensory nerve of the face.
This nerve innervates most of the viscera in the thoracic and abdominopelvic cavities.
Which nerve(s) carries the most parasympathetic fibers?
Some people suffer involuntary urination because of incompetence of what muscle?
True or False: A sacral fracture affecting the S3 and S4 nerve roots would result in a person having difficulty with evacuation of the bowels.
Which of the following is an intrinsic muscle of the hand?
a. extensor carpi radialis brevis
When a nurse draws blood, it is not uncommon for the needle to penetrate which muscle near the cubital region?
Carpal tunnel pressure is sometimes relieved by surgically excising part or all of which structure?
A baseball pitcher who injures one of his SITS muscles most commonly sustains tears to the tendon of which muscle?
Which muscle acting on the arm assists in deep inspiration?
The antagonist for the triceps brachii is the
Tennis elbow is a common term describing injury to which of the following?
Which of the following is true regarding the levator scapulae?
A butcher who cuts the distal portion of his fingers may cut the
Which of the following best describes the insertion of the extensor digitorum?
An injury that results in complete functional loss of the ulnar nerve will affect which of the following muscles?
The longest muscle in the human body is the
Which of the following muscles is in the medial compartment of the thigh?
True or False: The triceps surae consists of three muscles in the lower limb.
A male sustains a crushing injury to his foot. After weeks of care, he begins to notice that he cannot bend the little toe on his right foot. A logical diagnosis would be
A heavyset middle-aged insurance salesman who doesn't exercise often accepts his friend's invitation to a pickup basketball game. When attempting a jump shot, he falls to the ground in pain, grasping at the calf of his leg. There is an enormous bulge in his leg immediately below the knee, and he is unable to plantar flex that foot. Most likely he has injured his ___ and the bulge is ___.
An Olympic sprinter readies for a race. After the sound of the starting gun, he propels himself forward from the starting block and immediately grimaces in pain, grabbing for the back of his thigh. Within 48 hours he begins noticing extensive bruising on the back of his thigh extending into the back of the knee. He now has difficulty rising from a seated position and flexing his knee. Bending at the waist generates more pain. Which muscle is likely injured?
A skateboarder falls and lands directly on his buttocks and lower back. He does not feel too much pain and so he continues skating. After a couple of days he begins experiencing right hip pain and notices his right foot and leg are rotated to the right. A doctor diagnoses muscle spasm. Which of the following muscles is most likely causing the leg and foot rotation?
In lifting a heavy weight from the floor, one should use the power of the ___ in order to avoid muscle strain in the lower back.
Which muscle(s) in the figure is(are) responsible for medially rotating the tibia?
Which muscle(s) in the figure is(are) responsible for abducting and medially rotating the thigh?
Which muscle(s) in the figure insert(s) on the head of the fibula?
Which muscle(s) in the figure is(are) innervated by the tibial nerve?
Which muscle(s) in the figure is(are) innervated by the obturator nerve?
True or False: Injury to the deep fibular nerve would cause inability to extend ones toes.
A clinician induces contraction of the gastrocnemius and soleus and notices that the foot does not plantar flex as expected. Which of the following would be a logical diagnosis?
After childbirth a woman begins experiencing tremendous pain in her groin, making it difficult for her to walk. She has difficulty walking due to the pain. An X-ray shows a fracture extending from her symphysis pubis to the inferior ramus of the pubis. As a result of the fracture, which group of muscles might be impaired?
A skydiver's parachute fails to deploy. After some struggle, his reserve chute deploys in time to save his life. However, his landing is harder than normal and he feels his knee slightly hyperextend. He shakes it off and goes about his normal routine. Later that day he begins experiencing knee pain. Two days later he notices that his knee "pops" when he crouches and soon discovers he has dislocated his femur on the knee. What muscle was likely injured initially?
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a muscle cell?
The triads of a muscle fiber consist of
What is the purpose of the triad?
Which marks the boundaries of a sarcomere?
Which is predominately made up of myosin?
Which band contains overlapping thick and thin filaments?
In skeletal muscle, alternating light and dark bands are termed
The protein that acts as a calcium receptor in skeletal muscle is
Dystrophin, the protein that is defective in muscular dystrophy, is normally found
A myofilament that flanks a thick filament and anchors it to a Z disc is called
One somatic motor neuron is stimulated by how many muscle fibers?
The process of bringing more motor units into use during a muscle contraction is called
As you are lifting a box, someone places extra weight on top of it. For your muscle to continue contracting and lifting the box, the muscle must
To stimulate muscle contraction, acetylcholine is released from the ___________ into the synaptic cleft.
Release of acetylcholine at a neuromuscular junction
Which of the following best describes the resting membrane potential (RMP)?
The sarcolemma of a resting muscle fiber is most permeable to
Exposure to Clostridium tetani causes continuous release of acetylcholine. What effect does this have on smooth muscle?
During muscle contraction, a single myosin head consumes ATP at a rate of about
Which statement best describes the goal of medications used to treat myasthenia gravis?
The absence or inhibition of acetylcholinesterase at a synapse would lead to which of the following?
A skeletal muscle generates the greatest tension when it is
The minimum stimulus needed to cause muscle contraction is called
If one nerve stimulus arrives at a muscle fiber so soon that the fiber has only partially relaxed from the previous twitch, the most likely result will be
A reason that muscle twitches become progressively stronger in treppe is
The term for shortening of a muscle while maintaining constant tension is
Which of the following is true concerning isotonic eccentric contraction?
Which of the following is very important for muscle to continue contraction during anaerobic respiration?
Aerobic respiration produces approximately _____ more ATPs per glucose molecule than glycolysis does.
Which of the following individuals would have more mitochondria in her skeletal muscle?
Which of the following systems would provide energy for a racquetball player?
A volleyball player depends on the gastrocnemius muscles for plantar flexion, whereas a marathon runner depends more on the soleus muscles for the same action. This is because the soleus muscles
80% of the lactic acid produced by skeletal muscle is converted to pyruvic acid
Athletes who train at high altitudes increase their red blood cell count and thus increase their oxygen supply during exercise. Increased oxygen supply results in
Which of the following is not a purpose of the excess postexercise oxygen consumption in muscle?
Which fibers are primarily responsible for producing lactic acid?
Michael Jordan was arguably the best player in professional basketball history. Scientifically one would expect him to have highly developed
Conduction speed of a nerve fiber would be the fastest in a
Loss of muscle mass from lack of activity is termed
The training regimen of a competitive weight lifter is designed partly to
Which muscle type depends solely on the sarcoplasmic reticulum as its calcium source?
Which muscle(s) can contract without the need for nervous stimulation?
Which of the following groups of muscles have the most muscle spindles?
Where would you expect to find numerous gap junctions in muscular tissue?
Which of the following has the largest mitochondria?
Cardiac muscle has very little capacity for regeneration because it lacks
The contraction strength of smooth muscle is relatively independent of its resting length partly because
In comparison to skeletal muscle, smooth muscle
Which of the following would be caused by contraction of smooth muscle?
Drugs called calcium channel blockers may be used to lower blood pressure by causing arteries to vasodilate. These drugs
The purpose of varicosities in motor nerve fibers in muscle physiology is
The bladder's ability to greatly distend and return to normal tension is due to the ___ of smooth muscles.
Nerves are ___ of the nervous system.
____ division carries signals to the smooth muscle in the large intestine.
The ___ division tends to prepare the body for action.
___ are examples of effectors of the nervous system.
The autonomic nervous system is also called the
Some ___ neurons are specialized to detect stimuli, whereas ____ neurons send signals to the effectors of the nervous system.
About 90% of the neurons in the nervous system are ___ neurons.
___ neurons are the most common type of neurons.
Nerve fiber refers to
Most metabolic and regulatory functions in a neuron happen at the
This image shows a representative neuron. What does "1" represent?
____ are the primary site for receiving signals from other neurons.
__ form myelin in the spinal cord.
Most of the myelin sheath is composed of
The myelin sheath is formed by
In order for a peripheral nerve fiber to regenerate it must have
___ has the greatest influence on the resting membrane potential.
Most local potentials happen at the
Opening of sodium gates typically leads to
An inhibitory local potential
Which of the following will cause the plasma membrane to hyperpolarize when at its RMP?
Local potentials are _____, meaning they vary in magnitude according to the strength of the stimulus.
While the membrane is depolarizing its
This image shows an action potential. What does "1" represent?
This image shows an action potential. What does "6" represent?
Local potentials are ___, whereas action potentials are ___.
During hyperpolarization (or afterpotential)
When the voltage of a plasma membrane shifts from +35mV towards 0 mV, we say the cell is
During the absolute refractory period
A traveling wave of excitation is what we know as
In a myelinated fiber only the initial segment in the trigger zone have voltage-regulated channels.
What would be the best explanation for why myelinated fibers conduct signals faster than unmyelinated fibers?
All of the following are typical characteristics of neurotransmitters except
A cholinergic synapse employs ___ as its neurotransmitter.
___ binds to ligand-regulated gates, and is the most common inhibitory neurotransmitter in the brain.
Which of these happens first in an cholinergic synaptic transmission?
Which of these happens first in an adrenergic synaptic transmission?
___ excites skeletal muscle and inhibits cardiac muscle.
Some antidepressant drugs act by inhibiting monoamine oxidase (MAO), which is an enzyme
All of these contribute to the cessation of the signal in a synaptic transmission except
Inhibitory postsynaptic potentials (IPSPs) are associated with
Opening of __ gates produces an ___.
Which of these is an example of an EPSP in a typical neuron?
A neuron can receive thousands of EPSPs from different neurons, and responds by triggering or not triggering an action potential. This addition and response to the net effect of postsynaptic potentials is called
Presynaptic inhibition is the opposite of
Even though all action potentials are the same, the brain can differentiate a variety of stimuli by source and intensity. The mechanism by which the nervous system converts these action potentials into meaningful information is called neural
The best type of neural pool for producing a prolonged output is
Parkinson disease is a progressive loss of motor function due to the degeneration of specific neurons. These neurons secrete an inhibitory neurotransmitter that prevents excessive activity in motor centers of the brain. This neurotransmitter is
Accumulation of Ca2+ in the synaptic knob is called ___, and probably plays an important role in ___.
The following are all functions associated with the spinal cord except
Which of the following sensory functions involves neurons in the posterior root ganglia?
The spinal cord is divided into all of the following regions except
Which of the following fractures would be the least likely to cause a spinal cord injury?
This figure shows a detail of the spinal cord, meninges, and spinal nerves. What does "1" represent?
This figure shows a detail of the spinal cord, meninges, and spinal nerves. What does "4" represent?
Epidural anesthesia is introduced in the epidural space between the ___ to block pain signals during pregnancy.
Cerebrospinal fluid fills in the space between the
From superficial to deep, the meninges occur in this order:
This figure shows a cross section of the spinal cord. What does "3" represent?
Which of the following structures is the richest in lipid content?
Gray matter contains
The bundle of nerve roots that occupy the vertebral canal from L2 to S5 is called the
The upper motor neurons that control skeletal muscles begin with a soma in
The signals that control your handwriting travel down the spinal cord in
Which of these is an ascending tract of the spinal cord?
Many upper motor neurons synapse with lower motor neurons in
___ carry motor commands from the brain along the spinal cord.
Second-order neurons synapse with third-order neurons in the
___ keep(s) nerve fibers insulated from one another.
___ fibers innervate eyes and ears.
A ganglion is a
A mixed nerve consists of both
Which of the following branches of a spinal nerve have somas of solely sensory neurons?
Somatosensory refers to these sensory signals except the sensory signals from
Neurosomas of the posterior root are located in the ___, whereas neurosomas of the anterior root are located in the ___.
There are __ pairs of spinal nerves.
This figure shows the posterior aspect of spinal nerve roots and plexuses. What does "3" represent?
This figure shows the posterior aspect of spinal nerve roots and plexuses. What does "2" represent?
The ventral rami of the spinal nerves form nerve plexuses in all regions except
The cervical plexus gives origin to the ___ nerve(s).
Which of the following nerves originates in the lumbosacral plexus?
This figure shows a dermatome map. A patient with no sensation in the left thumb would probably have a nerve damaged in
Somatic reflexes are responses of skeletal, smooth, and cardiac muscles.
These are all properties of reflexes except
A nurse pricks your finger to type your blood. You flinch at the pain, pulling your hand back. This is called the
If a bee sting on the right thigh causes a quick involuntary reaction of the right arm, this would be an example of
You go to the movies after a long day and you begin to nod off as soon as the movie starts. Your head starts to lower a little but this reflex causes your head to rise. This is called the
This reflex shows the least synaptic delay.
Which one of the following best describes the order of a somatic reflex?
Which one of the following best describes the order of a visceral reflex?
The stretch reflex is a tendency of a muscle to stretch when it is overcontracted.
A stretch reflex is often accompanied by reciprocal inhibition.
The tendon reflex is the inhibition of a muscle contraction that occurs when its tendon is excessively stretched.
The cross extension reflex is the contraction of the extensors on one side of the body when the flexors are contracted on the other side.
A muscle spindle contains mostly
The quickest reflex arcs involve only two neurons, thus forming __ reflex arcs.
The flexor (withdrawal) reflex employs a ____, which maintains a sustained contraction.
The sensitivity of the muscle spindle is maintained by
The fibers that carry action potentials to cause skeletal muscle to contract are
In the patellar tendon reflex arc, the patellar ligament is stretched, which stretches the quadriceps femoris muscle of the thigh. This reflex will cause the quadriceps femoris to
A reflex where the sensory input and motor output are on opposite sides of the spinal cord is called a _____ reflex arc.
The tendon reflex
Tendon organs are
The cerebellum exhibits folds called gyri separated by grooves called sulci.
The following are all major components of the brainstem except
The right and left cerebral hemispheres are separated from each other by
The cerebellum is __ to the cerebrum.
The cardiac, vasomotor, and respiratory centers are found in
Both cerebrum and cerebellum have gray matter in their surface cortex and deeper nuclei, and white matter deep to the cortex.
The gray matter of the cerebrum forms a surface layer called ___ and deeper masses called ___ surrounded by white matter.
The blood-brain barrier (BBB) is most permeable to
The pons and cerebellum relate with this secondary embryonic vesicle.
A patient is experiencing a high fever, stiff neck, drowsiness, and intense headaches. A spinal tap showed bacteria and white blood cells in the cerebrospinal fluid (CSF). This individual most likely has
Epidural space is filled with cerebrospinal fluid (CSF).
Cerebrospinal fluid serves these purposes except
Cerebrospinal fluid is secreted by choroid plexuses in the ____ ventricles and reabsorbed by arachnoid villi in the ___.
The blood-brain barrier (BBB) helps prevent hemorrhages in the nervous tissue of the brain.
The blood-CSF barrier is composed of dense regular connective tissue lining the ventricles.
The blood brain barrier (BBB) consists of
Purkinje cells are unusually large neurons found in the cerebellum.
The cerebellum is the largest part of the brain.
Structures in the midbrain control homeostasis and relay sensory signals to specific regions of the cerebral cortex.
The medulla oblongata is the most rostral part of the brain.
The medulla oblongata originates from
The ___ function(s) in visual attention, such as to look and follow the flight of a butterfly.
Degeneration of neurons in this structure, which inhibits unwanted body movements, leads to the muscle tremors of Parkinson disease.
The ___ is the largest part of the hindbrain.
Loss of equilibrium and motor coordination would most likely be related to a lesion in the
The arbor vitae is a structure found in
There are no cranial nerves associated with
The pons is not associated with
The reticular formation is a web of ___ scattered throughout the ____.
The forebrain consists of the cerebrum and the diencephalon.
The thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus are derivatives of the embryonic
Nearly all the somatosensory input to the cerebrum passes by way of synapses in
Sex drive, body temperature, and food and water intake are regulated by
A lesion of the ___ would probably cause a person to sleep for random lengths of time during a 24-hour period.
The pineal gland belongs to
Planning, motivation, and social judgment are functions of the brain associated with
The primary olfactory cortex is located in the
The occipital lobe is
The great majority of ____ tracts pass through the corpus callosum.
The hippocampus and amygdala are structures found in
Most gray matter of the cerebrum is located in
A predominance of ___ waves in an electroencephalogram (EEG) might indicate that a person is physically and mentally relaxed.
During rapid eye movement (REM) sleep