BCMB Spring 2006 Final Exam 1. Urine moves from the kidney to the bladder by: a. hydrostatic pressure b. osmotic pressure c. peristalsis d. abdominal contractions 2. 2. Filtrate leaving the ascending loop of Henle enters the: a. collecting duct b. distal convoluted tubule c. descending loop of Henle d. capsular space 3. Urea a. is reabsorbed by secondary active transport b. is reabsorbed by secondary active transport c. is reabsorbed by simple diffusion d. is a waste and is not reabsorbed 4. Vasoconstriction of the efferent arterioles would result in: a. an increase in filtration rate b. a decrease in filtration rate c. a decrease in filtration membrane permeability d. no change in renal function 5. Filtrate reaching the descending loop of Henle would not contain: a. sodium b. urea c. creatine d. glucose 6. The main driving force for filtration is: a. systematic blood pressure b. glomerular hydrostatic pressure c. glomerular osmotic pressure d. capsular hydrostatic pressure 7. Renal filtration separates plasma components on the basis of: a. size b. water solubility c. charge d. all of the above 8. Which of the following is never permeable to water? a. ascending loop of Henle b. descending loop oh Henle c. collecting duct d. glomerular capsule 9. Plasma potassium levels are regulated by: a. tubular reabsorption b. tubular metabolism c. tubular secretion d. all of the above 10. Malaria, Giardia, and amoebic dysentery are examples of diseases causes by: a. virus b. bacteria c. protists d. prions 11. Which of the following is secreted by the juxtaglomerular apparatus? a. angiotensinogen b. ADH c. renin d. ACE 12. Hemoglobin has specific binding sites for: a. bicarbonate b. carbon dioxide c. hydrogen ions d. chlorine ions 13. A shift to the right of the oxygen disassociation curve represents: a. an increase in affinity b. a decrease in affinity c. an increase in saturation d. both b and c 14. Regulated reabsorption of sodium occurs in the: a. proximal convulted b. distal convoluted tubule c. descending loop of Henle d. all of the above 15. ADH acts to: a. conserve sodium b. conserve water c. increase plasma volume d. both b and c 16. Aldosterone acts to: a. increase plasma sodium b. conserve sodium c. conserve potassium d. all of the above 17. Obligatory reabsorption of water occurs in: (think carefully) a. proximal convoluted tubule b. ascending loop of Henle c. collecting duct d. both a and b 18. Chronic diarrhea can result in: a. dehydration b. a decrease in pH c. respiratory compensation d. all of the above 19. Which of the following does not increase hemoglobin affinity for carbon dioxide? a. low DPG b. low oxygen concentration c. low pH d. high carbon dioxide levels 20. Contraction if the diaphragm: a. increases thoracic cavity volume and lowers alveolar pressure b. decreases thoracic cavity volume and increases alveolar pressure c. increases thoracic cavity volume and increases alveolar pressure d. decreases thoracic cavity volume and decreases alveolar pressure 21. Movement of water and solutes from the peritubular capillaries into the renal tubules is: a. filtration b. reabsorption c. secretion d. metabolism 22. A counter current exchange system acts to produce: a. reabsorption b. resorption c. absorption d. a gradient 23. Which of the following would not pass through the filtration membrane: a. glucose b. creatine c. albumin d. bicarbonate 24. As air moves from the atmosphere to the alveoli, the partial pressure of oxygen drops. This is due to: a. cellular respiration in the bronchi b. increased volume of the thoracic cavity c. mixing with the residual volume d. action of carbonic anhydrase 25. Which of the following is not an action of angiotensin II? a. vasoconstriction b. vasodilation c. stimulation of hypothalamus d. stimulation of adrenal cortex 26. Which of the following would result in the release of aldosterone? a. high plasma potassium levels b. high plasma sodium and potassium levels c. high sodium levels d. all of the above 27. Which of the following increases hemoglobin affinity to oxygen? a. lower temperature b. low oxygen c. high DPG d. high carbon dioxide 28. The enteric nervous system helps to control: a. blood pressure b. kidney function c. GI tract function d. all of the above 29. Reduction in surface tension in the alveoli: a. increases compliance b. increases compensation c. decreases compensation d. dilates bronchioles 30. Injection of antibodies would provide which form of immunity? a. active natural b. active artificial c. passive natural d. passive artificial 31. Most of the carbon dioxide transported by the blood is: a. dissolved in plasma b. bound to hemoglobin c. nonspecifically bound to plasma proteins d. in the form of bicarbonate 32. The plasma concentration of a reabsorbed solute when it first appears in the urine is the: a. critical concentration b. transport maximum c. renal threshold d. saturation level 33. Which of the following would be found in the intestinal lumen? a. emulsification droplets b. micelles c. chylomicrons d. both a and b 34. Amylase is produced in the: a. salivary glands b. liver c. pancreas d. both a and c 35. A hypoosmotic filtrate would be found in the: a. bottom of the loop of Henle b. proximal convoluted tubule c. collecting duct with ADH d. collecting duct without ADH 36. A primary immune response produces: a. clonal expansion b. antibodies c. immediate immunity d. both a and b 37. The amount of air moved by contractions of the diaphragm alone is the: a. tidal volume b. expiratory reserve volume c. inspiratory reserve volume d. all of the above 38. The liver plays an important role in: a. regulating plasma sodium b. digestion of fats c. immunity d. all of the above 39. Lacteals act in: a. calcium storage b. milk production and storage c. absorption of fats d. immunity 40. Stomach distension helps initiate which phase of GI tract control: a. cephalic b. intestinal c. gastric d. enteric 41. Multiple Sclerosis occurs when myelin is destroyed by antibodies. This is an example of: a. immunodeficiency disease b. autoimmune disease c. allergic reaction d. viral infection 42. The amount of air that can be exhaled after a normal exhalation is the: a. vital capacity b. inspiratory reserve volume c. expiratory reserve volume d. residual volume 43. A patient that is hyperventilating could be: a. in respiratory alkalosis b. compensating for a metabolic acidosis c. hypoxic (low oxygen) d. all of the above 44. What is produced during the tubular metabolism of glutamine? a. bicarbonate b. phosphoric acid c. hydrogen ions d. urea 45. Plasma proteins that act nonspecifically to protect against disease are: a. antibodies b. antigens c. complement d. both a and b 46. Ovulation is stimulated by: a. rapidly rising levels of estrogen b. a sudden peak in LH secretion c. rapidly falling estrogen levels c. mechanical stimulation of the ulva 47. The corpus luteum produces: a. oocytes b. estrogen and progesterone c. HCG d. all of the above 48. Localized redness, swelling, pain, and temperature increase are characteristic of: a. infection b. inflammation c. complement activation d. antibody action 49. The highest levels of estrogen are present: a. at ovulation b. just before ovulation c. after ovulation d. during menesis 50. The onset of the menstrual flow is due to: a. increased FSH b. decreased estrogen and progesterone c. combined action of FSH and estrogen d. increases in LH 51. Which protein would be present on the luminal surface of cells of the distal convoluted tubule? a. glucose transporter b. hydrogen ion ATPase c. bicarbonate transporter d. potassium channel 52. Which structure has aquaporins that are ligand gated? a. proximal convoluted tubule b. ascending loop of Henle c. descending loop of Henle d. collecting duct 53. Long neural reflex is required for which phase of control of the GI tract? a. cephalic b. gastric c. intestinal d. oral 54. Which of the following would not work in someone with an immune deficiency? a. an antiserum b. a vaccine c. interferon injections d. antibiotics 55. Allergies can be treated by blocking the action of: a. cyclooxygenase b. lipoxygenase c. enterokinase d. phospholipase C 56. Certain types of bacteria cause macrophages to release cytokines such as TNF and IL-1 into the bloodstream. These cytokines are very potent mediators of inflammation and may act as pyrogens. What is the likely effect of systemic distribution of these chemical messengers? a. fever and serious decrease in blood pressure b. localized temperature increase and swelling c. increased antibody production d. all of the above 57. Nitroglycerine is metabolized by the body to produce nitric oxide. Viagra acts to increase blood flow to the penis. Taking these drugs at the same time is very dangerous due to the risk of: a. blocking arteries that supply oxygen to the heart b. increasing clots that lead to heart attack c. systemic vasodilation d. erections that last more than 4 hours 58. If atmospheric pressure is 756 mmHh, the partial pressure of carbon dioxide is 1mmHg and the partial pressure of nitrogen is 600 mmHg. What is the partial pressure of oxygen? a. 160 mmHg b. 105 mmHg c. 100mmHg d. 155 mmHg 59. Endothelial cells do not produce: a. Von Willebrand factor b. plasminogen c. prostacyclins d. heparin 60. Which of the following is not a tropic hormone: a. HCG b. FSH c. ACTH d. ADH 61. Water soluble hormones can act to change cell behavior by: a. changing membrane permeability b. activating second messengers c. influencing transcription d. all of the above 62. Utilization of fats for energy is promoted by: a. epinephrine b. glucagons c. thyroid hormone d. all of the above 63. Which period of a muscle twitch has the least amount of cytosolic calcium? a. latent period b. contraction period c. relaxation period d. refractory period 64. Which enzyme is only active in the presence of calcium? a. myosin ATPase b. creatine kinase c. myosin light chain kinase d. calmodulin 65. Single unit smooth muscle can be stimulated by: a. hormones b. pacemakers c. stretch d. all of the above 66. Nonpolar molecules can pass through the plasma membrane: a. is appropriate carrier molecules are present b. if a concentration gradient is present c. the cell requires the molecule to function d. appropriate membrane receptors are present
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