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G is inserted into the newly synthesized DNA strand opposite a T in the template DNA strand. If this mistake is not repaired before the next round of DNA replication, what mutation will eventually result?
a. A-to-G base substitution
b. A-to-C base substitution
c. A-to-T base substitution
d. G-to-A base substitutione. C-to-A base substitution
Ultraviolet light causes what type of DNA lesion?
a. Large deletions
The Ames test is used to assess mutagenicity of a substance by:
a, using bacterial strains that had a mutation blocking histidine biosynthesis.
Which of the following mutagens is most likely to cause a frameshift mutation?
a. Base analog
b. Alkylating agent
c. Intercalating agent
d. Ionizing radiation
Which of the following statements is false?
a. Errors in chromosome separation are rarely a problem for an organism.b. Errors in chromosome separation can result in a miscarriage.
In eukaryotes, chromosomes do not contain
Prokaryotic chromosomes do not have telomeres because they
a, do not go through mitosis.
The purpose of cell checkpoints is to:
a, verify that the chromosomes have been packaged properly.
Which of the following statements is true?
b. Alleles, genes, and loci are different names for the same thing.
a. The genotype must be BB.
Which of the following crosses would produce a 3:1 ratio of phenotypes in the next generation?
a. AA ´ AA
b. AA ´ aa
c. Aa ´ Aa
d. Aa ´ aa
e. aa ´ aa
The ability to curl one’s tongue into a U-shape is a genetic trait. Curlers always have at least one curler parent but noncurlers can have one or both parents who are curlers. Using C and c to symbolize the alleles that control this trait, what is the genotype of a noncurler? Use C for dominant and c for recessive alleles.
c. cc d. Any of the above could be correct
Two gene loci, A and B, assort independently, and alleles A and B are dominant over alleles a and b. What is the probability of producing an AaBb offspring from a cross AaBb × AABB?
d. 9/16e. 1 (100%)
In a cross between AaBbCc and AaBbcc, what proportion of the offspring would be expected to be A_bbcc? (A_ means AA or Aa.) Careful- this is a little tricky!
In species of birds, males are the homogametic sex and females the heterogametic sex. Which if the following is true in this system of sex determination? a. The gender of the offspring is determined by the female parent. b. Male offspring have a ZW chromosome constitution. c. The gender of the offspring is determined by the male parent. d. Female offspring have a ZZ chromosome constitution. Female and male offspring have the same chromosome constitution
Which of the following chromosome constitutions would never lead to a viable human baby being born? O = the absence of a second chromosome.
Interactions among the human ABO blood group alleles involve _______ and ________.
a. co-dominance; complete dominance
b. codominance; incomplete dominance
c. complete dominance; incomplete dominance
d. epistasis; complementatione. continuous variation; environmental variation
Suppose that extra fingers and toes are caused by a recessive trait, but it appears in only 60% of homozygous recessive individuals. Two heterozygotes conceive a child. What is the probability that this child will have extra fingers and toes?
d. 0.20 e. 0.30
A mother of blood type A gives birth to a child with blood type O. Which of the following could NOT be the blood type of the father?
d. ABe. Any of the above is a possible blood type of the father
Considering cases of incomplete dominance:
a. the heterozygote has a phenotype intermediate between the homozygotes.
b. the homozygote has a phenotype intermediate between the heterozygotes.
c. the heterozygote has a phenotype identical to one of the homozygotes.
d. the homozygote has a phenotype identical to one of the heterozygotes.e. None of the above.
Hair color in Lab: A dominant allele B: black recessive allele b: brown. dominant allele E allows dark pigment (black or brown) to be deposited, whereas recessive allele e prevents the deposition of dark pigment, causing the hair to be yellow. What type of gene interaction does this represent?
a. Recessive epistasis b. Dominant epistasis
c. Duplicate recessive epistasis
d. Duplicate dominant epistasis
e. Dominant and recessive epistasis
Traits that have differential expression in the two sexes are known as:
d. sex-determined.e. None of the above
The fact that a large range of continuous variation is seen in some traits, such as human height, can be attributed to:
a. polygenic inheritance.
b. environmental effects.
d. A and B.e. All of the above
Current problems in the human genetics field that inhibit genetic characterization include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. inability to conduct controlled genetic crosses.
b. relatively small family sizes.
c. poor genealogic records.
d. relatively long generation time.e. Actually, all of these are problems
A pedigree of an autosomal dominant trait, such as familial hypercholesterolemia, will likely show all of the following characteristics EXCEPT:
a. skipping of a generation by the trait.
b. equal numbers of males and females affected.
c. unaffected individuals do not pass on the trait.d. half the offspring of an affected individual will have the trait.
When genes violate Mendel’s second law, they are said to:
a. fail to assort independently.
b. be linked.
c. be coupled.
d. A and B.e. All of the above
1. Linked genes always exhibit
a. phenotypes that are similar.
b. recombination frequencies of less than 50%.
c. homozygosity when involved in a testcross.
d. a greater number of recombinant offspring than parental offspring when involved in a testcross.e. a lack of recombinant offspring when a heterozygous parent is testcrossed
Recombination frequency is simply:
A. the number of recombinant offspring divided by the number of nonrecombinant offspring.
B. the number of recombinant offspring divided by the total number of offspring.
C. the number of nonrecombinant offspring divided by the number of recombinant offspring.
D. the number of nonrecombinant offspring divided by the total number of offspring.e. None of the above
3. Since linked genes violate Mendel’s second law, a typical dihybrid testcross with them would show:
a. a 9:3:3:1 ratio.
b. a 1:1:1:1 ratio.
c. a 3:1 ratio.d. something other than a 9:3:3:1 ratio
a. No, if two genes are on the same chromosome, they will be linked and the recombination frequency will be less than 50%.
d. Yes, if the genes are far enough apart on the same chromosome, a crossover occurs between them in just about every meiotic event.
3. Assume that an individual of AB/ab genotype is testcrossed and four classes of testcross progeny are found in equal frequencies. Which of the following statements is TRUE?
a. The genes A and B are on the same chromosome and closely linked. b. The genes A and B are on the same chromosome and very far apart.
d. The genes A and B are likely located on different chromosomes.E. Either b or d could be correct
3. Recombination occurs through
a. crossing over and chromosome interference.
b. chromosome interference and independent assortment.
c. somatic-cell hybridization and chromosome interference.
d. complete linkage and chromosome interference.e. crossing over and independent assortment
Why do calculated recombination frequencies between pairs of loci that are far apart on a chromosome underestimate the true genetic distance between such loci?
a. no estimate is possible between such loci
b. there is a higher chance of undetected double crossovers c. Loci that are far apart tend to recombine less and distances are underestimated
d. all of these are correct e. None of the above are correct
8. If the recombination frequency between genes (A) and (B) is 5.3%, what is the distance between the genes in map units on the linkage map?
a. 53 cM
b. 5.3 cM
c. 0.53 cM
d. 10.6 cM
e. 25 cM
An individual has the following genotype. Gene loci (A) and (B) are 15 cM apart. What are the correct frequencies of some of the gametes that can be made by this individual?
a. Ab = 7.5%; AB = 42.5%
b. ab = 25%; aB = 50%
c. AB = 7.5%; aB = 42.5%
d. aB = 15%; Ab = 70% e. aB = 70%; Ab = 15%
Linked genes are
c. on different chromosomes.
d. on the same chromosome.recessive lethal
The complete set of chromosomes possessed by an organism is called a
b. chromatin complement.
d. genotype.e. diploid
A man has a condition where all of his gametes undergo nondisjunction of the sex chromosomes in meiosis I, but meiosis II proceeds normally. He mates with a woman who produces all normal gametes. What is the probability that the fertilized egg will develop into a child with Turner syndrome (XO)? Assume that all gametes and zygotes are viable.
a. 1/8 b. 1/4 c. 1/3 d. 1/2 e. 0
Which type of chromosome mutation increases the amount of genetic material?
Which form of aneuploidy causes primary Down syndrome?
d. Trisomye. Tetrasomy
Which type of chromosome mutation is responsible for familial Down syndrome?
16. Which of the following is a set of molecular techniques for locating, isolating, altering, and studying DNA segments?
a. In situ hybridization
b. Gel electrophoresis
c. Gene cloning
d. Southern blotting
e. Recombinant DNA technology
17. Cloning a gene after isolating it requires all of the following EXCEPT:
a. ligation into a vector.
One technique for finding a gene of interest involves first generating a genetic map to find the general location of the gene, and then identifying the specific location of the gene. What is this technique called?
a. Next-generation sequencing
b. DNA fingerprinting
c. Positional cloning
d. In silico gene discovery
e. Site-directed mutagenesis
One of the most powerful relatively new techniques that has revolutionized much of genetic engineering by allowing amplification of sequences of DNA is:
a, restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP) analysis.
a. can be used to detect single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs).
Suppose you have previously located and cloned a human gene on chromosome 2. You now believe there is an important disease-related gene nearby on the same chromosome. What technique might you employ to locate the disease-related gene?
a. Chromosome walking
b. DNA fingerprinting
c. Site-directed mutagenesis
d. RNAie. None of the above could be used in this situation
What is the function of dideoxynucleotides in Sanger DNA sequencing?
a. They act as primers for DNA polymerase.
b. They act as primers for reverse transcriptase.
c. They cut the sequenced DNA at specific sites.
d. They allow only the specific sequencing of the RNAs of a genome.e, They stop synthesis at a specific site, so the base at that site can be determined
A scientist mutates a gene in yeast and then looks to see what effect the mutation has on the phenotype in yeast. This is an example of
a. DNA fingerprinting.
b. next-generation sequencing.
c. transgenic research.
d. reverse genetics.
e. positional cloning.
Which of the following best describes knockout mice?
a. They have a gene of interest that has been fully disabled. b. They have lower expression levels of a gene of interest. c. They have higher expression levels of a gene of interest.d. They have a point mutation in the gene of interest.
Biotechnology applications include all of the following EXCEPT:
a. artificial selection for larger fruit size in crops.b. genetic testing for people.
Loci that are far apart
a. have a higher recombination rate than loci that are close together.
Linkage disequilibrium is the nonrandom association among SNPs within a haplotype. would you expect linkage disequilibrium among markers to increase, or to decrease?
b. Decrease, because crossing over will break up the physical linkage among markers
c. Increase, because unequal crossing over will create between SNPs to decrease the physical distance between them
Microarrays can be used to:
a. identify which genes are used in particular cell types or tissues.
Two genes that evolved from the same common ancestral gene, but are now found as homologs in different organisms, are called
Which of the following statements about eukaryotic genomes is TRUE?
a. A substantial part of the genomes of most multicellular organisms consists of protein coding sequences. b. People differ, not only at millions of individual SNPs, but also in the number of copies of many larger segments of the genome. c. In humans, the number of proteins is approximately equal to the total number of genes.d.
Which of the following is NOT an example of the importance of gene duplication in genome evolution?
a. The human olfactory multigene family consists of about 1000 genes used in our sense of smell.
A major difference between prokaryotic and eukaryotic genomes is:
a. prokaryotic genes all start with an ATG codon.
b. eukaryotic genomes often consist of large amounts of transposon DNA.
c. prokaryotic genomes only encode proteins and RNAs.
d. eukaryotic genomes have genes that have sequence similarity to other genes
Two-dimensional polyacrylamide gel electrophoresis (2D-PAGE) is a technique wherein proteins are separated first in one dimension and then in a second dimension. What is the reason that two dimensions are used? a. A repeat of the same separation technique improves the detection of proteins b. Two dimensions are required for protein separation by electrophoresis c. The two dimensions separate the proteins by different properties so improve resolution
Comparative eukaryotic genomics has revealed:
a. there is a positive relationship between complexity of organisms and DNA content.
a, tend to vary continuously.
______________ can cause a single genotype to produce a range of potential phenotypes.
b. Genetic variance
c. Threshold effects
d. Environmental effectse,. Heritability
A correlation coefficient of –0.95 would indicate:
a. a strong positive association between the two variables being investigated.
a. is one of the genes that influences a trait.
b. is a chromosomal region containing genes that influence a quantitative trait.
c. will not contain any genes other than the ones influencing a trait.
d. is a measure of the phenotypic variation in a quantitative trait.e. is a measure of the genetic variation in a quantitative trait
Genetic variance includes:
a. additive genetic variance.
a. refers to traits that can be inherited.
Calculating heritability can be done by:
a. comparing genetically identical individuals.
Why does the response to selection level off after many generations of such selection?
a. genetic variation is depleted in the population under selection
b. there may be an opposing correlated response that limits response to the original selection
c. both a and b
d. none of the above answers are correct
A Mendelian population is defined by individuals that are
d. segregating.e. migrating
The ____________ includes all of the genetic information within a Mendelian population.
a. effective population size
b. Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium
d. genotypic frequency
e. gene pool
The Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium requires all of the following assumptions EXCEPT:
a. mating is random.
Suppose that in a population the frequency of a particular recessive condition is 1/400. Assume the presence of only a dominant allele (A) and a recessive allele (a) in the population and that the population is at Hardy–Weinberg equilibrium such that the formula p2 +2pq + q2 applies. What is the frequency of the recessive allele that causes the condition?
a. 1/1600 b. 1/400 c. 1/40 d. 1/20 e. 1/10
A heterozygote is an individual:a. with two different genes for a trait.
Which of the following was not one of Mendel’s conclusions based on his monohybrid crosses?a. Genes are carried on chromosomes.
Freckles are caused by a dominant allele. A man has freckles but one of his parents does not have freckles. The man has fathered a child with a woman that does not have freckles. What is the probability that their child has freckles?
According to the multiplication rule of probability, the chance of crossing two black sheep that are heterozygous for wool color and have all four offspring showing the recessive white phenotype is:a. ¼ ´ ¼ ´ ¼ ´ ¼
The dihybrid cross:a. was used by Mendel to develop the law of segregation.
Mendel’s law of independent assortment depends on the events of meiosis in because:
a. different chromosomes will segregate independently during anaphase I.
In the case of many organisms, sex is determined by specific sex chromosomes. In the case of most mammals, females are:
Which of the following are NOT a characteristic of the X-linked recessive trait hemophilia:
A. males always display the phenotype of their affected mother
B. males pass on hemophila to their sons
C. females may receive the affected X chromosome from their father
D. females may receive the affected X chromosome from their motherE. all of these are characteristics of hemophila
In humans, X-linked color blindness:
a. affects women more often than men because it is on the X chromosome.
Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a recessive autosomal trait that every American child is tested early in life. Two normal parents have a PKU-affected child. What is the probability that a sperm from the father has a PKU allele?
A. 1/8 B. 1/4 C. 1/2 D. 3/4
E. The probability cannot be determined from the information provided
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