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Most eukaryotic cells have one membrane-bound ________ that contains the genetic material.
D) plasma membrane
E) cell wall
Which of the following structures is characteristic of both eukaryotic and prokaryotic cells?
C) endoplasmic reticulum
D) cell membrane
E) Golgi apparatus
Nearly every eukaryotic cell
A) has their genetic material loosely distributed throughout the cytoplasm.
B) has a membrane that serves as the outer boundary the cell.
C) contains a hard, non-compressible fluid called the cytosol.
D) possess flagella and cilia, unlike prokaryotes.
E) contain all of their genetic material in mitochondria.
4) Over the course of evolutionary time, animal body sizes have gotten larger, yet cell sizes have not. Cells have stayed proportionally the same size to remain efficient, which is due to the fact that
A) if cells got larger, the demand for energy and raw materials would greatly decrease.
B) larger cells would become limited by the ability to move materials across the plasma membrane.
5) Bulk movement of water across plasma membranes and the exchange of oxygen from blood into cells are similar in that the method of transport is by
A) facilitated transport.
D) active transport.
E) sodium-potassium pumps.
A student is designing an experiment to show the effects of the movement of water across a selectively permeable membrane. He places a highly concentrated saltwater solution into a bag that is permeable only to water. He then submerges the bag into a beaker of pure water. Which of the following can be expected?
The net flow of water will be from the beaker into the bag, causing the contents of the bag to increase in volume.
Oxygen and carbon dioxide are able to pass through the plasma membrane of a cell because
A) they are both polar molecules.
B) both are lipid soluble.
C) they move through ion pores.
D) each binds to a transport protein that "pulls" them across the membrane.
E) they pass between phospholipids.
Gated channels are especially important in regulating the transport of ________ across a plasma membrane.
D) small uncharged molecules
E) nucleic acids
Which of the following best explains how water moves freely across a plasma membrane?
A) Water moves directly through the phospholipid bilayer bfecause of the charges on phospholipids.
B) Water is brought into the cell by facilitated diffusion but released by exocytosis.
C) It is actively transported across the membrane.
D) Water moves through protein-lined channels in the plasma membrane.
Which of the following is true regarding active transport?
A) Active transport requires energy.
B) Molecules are moved across a plasma membrane from an area of higher concentration to an area of lower concentration.
C) Active transport relies on the process of diffusion.
Active transport is like facilitated diffusion in that both processes
A) move molecules down their concentration gradient.
B) require the presence of proteins in the plasma membrane that move molecules from one side of the plasma membrane to the other.
C) require the conversion of ADP to ATP.
D) do not require a source of energy.
To move solutes like amino acids into a cell by active transport, the cell
A) must possess appropriate transport proteins in the plasma membrane.
B) must have a net gain in energy resulting from active transport.
C) maintains a lower concentration of the amino acids in the cytoplasm.
D) must move water out of the cytoplasm at the same time.
Peptides and small proteins are generally too large to be transported into cells using transport proteins or moving through pores. The macromolecules are brought into the cell using
C) gated channels.
E) open channels.
The ultimate stem cell is a fertilized egg because
A) it can undergo mitosis.
B) a newly fertilized egg is always free of defects and disease.
C) it gives rise to all specialized cells in the body.
D) it will only produce healthy nervous tissue.
E) they are slow growing and thus more stable.
In the cell, proteins that are synthesized for immediate use by the cell are normally produced
A) in the plasma membrane.
B) in the nucleus.
C) in the Golgi apparatus.
D) on smooth endoplasmic reticulum.
E) on free-floating ribosomes.
Which of the following organelles produces proteins?
A) rough endoplasmic reticulum
D) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
Lysosomes dissolve and remove damaged cell organelles and other cellular debris. Once the lysosomes have completed the digestion of these cell parts, they become
C) residual bodies.
The products of the endoplasmic reticulum are transported to the Golgi apparatus by
D) gated channels.
E) free-floating ribosomes.
Assume that you ate a salad that contained some compounds that upset your stomach but still managed to be absorbed and eventually moved into liver cells. The plant compounds are noxious and potentially toxic to the liver cells. Which organelle would be expected to target and detoxify the plant compounds?
Muscle cells require more energy than most other cells in order to function. Therefore, muscle cells would be expected to have more ________ and ________ than most other cells.
A) glycogen, mitochondria
B) peroxisomes, fat
C) mitochondria, triglycerides
D) ribosomes, glycogen
E) glucose, nuclei
The enzymes stored in peroxisomes are used to break down
A) the cell when it becomes damaged.
B) bacteria and viruses.
C) faulty proteins produced by a cell.
D) the plasma membrane.
E) hydrogen peroxide.
To increase the surface are of some cells, the plasma membrane possess
D) transport proteins.
Muscle cells store energy in the form of ________ until it is used for the production of ATP.
Which of the following structures provides an internal network of support for the cell?
C) the cytoskeleton
To date the age of cells, the amount of carbon 14 found in nuclear DNA of a given cell is
A) compared to the amount of atmospheric carbon-14 for each year until there is a match.
B) measured in a spectrophotometer that is calibrated.
C) weighed to determine the ‘‘birth’’ date.
D) compared to the carbon-14 levels found in sex cells of the individual.
E) Measured and than compared to levels found in either the Atlantic or Pacific Ocean.
During cell division, it is essential that the genetic material be distributed equally to the resulting cells. This is accomplished through the participation of which of the following organelles?
D) Golgi apparatus
Which of the following is true regarding metabolism?
A) Metabolism involves about 200 different chemical reactions occurring in a living organism.
B) An anabolic reaction is one in which a large molecule is broken down into smaller molecules.
C) Linear metabolic pathways occur when the product of one reaction is used as the substrate of the previous reaction.
D) Catabolic pathways result in the release of energy.
Chemical reactions that result in the synthesis or assembly of large molecules are referred to as
Which of the following is true regarding cellular respiration?
A) the process begins with the electron transport system
B) requires the presence of oxygen
C) results in the complete breakdown of ATP
D) produces carbon dioxide and nitrogen
E) results in the synthesis of large sugar molecules
Cellular respiration is essential to eukaryotic cells because
A) it is a process of anabolic reactions necessary for DNA synthesis.
B) it breaks down ATP molecules into ADP and a phosphate.
C) the process releases energy from organic substrates.
D) it releases energy from anabolic reactions, which then can be used to drive catabolic reactions.
Glucose is the most commonly used energy source by human cells because
A) this is the largest macromolecule available to cells for energy production.
B) this monosaccharide yields the most energy of all macromolecules.
C) fats and proteins yield too much energy for the cells to process.
D) the breakdown of other macromolecules can be more energy demanding than that of glucose.
Which of the following stages in the catabolism of glucose involves the splitting of glucose into two three-carbon molecules?
A) conversion of pyruvate to acetyl
B) movement of NADH to the electron transport system
D) movement of electrons through the electron transport system
E) the Krebs cycle
Where in a typical human cell does glycolysis occur?
B) Golgi apparatus.
E) Rough endoplasmic reticulum.
The two-carbon molecule acetyl is completely broken apart into carbon dioxide, hydrogen ions, and electrons in which of the following processes?
B) action of the sodium-potassium pump
C) the electron transport system
E) the citric acid cycle
At the end of the electron transport system, oxygen combines with electrons and hydrogen ions to form ________, a “waste” product.
In the electron transport system, the energy used to synthesize ATP comes from the diffusion of ________ from the outer compartment of the mitochondria to the inner compartment.
C) hydrogen ions
Cellular respiration is a multi-pathway process that converts an organic substrate into cellular energy. The majority of energy in the form of ATP is not synthesized until electrons are transferred by ________ and ________ to the electron transport pathway.
A) Coenzyme A, FADH2
B) Glucose, NADH
C) Coenzyme A, NADH
D) FADH2 and NADH
Immediately after a meal, which of the following is first used by cells as an energy source?
C) lactic acid
D) amino acids
When a runner or other long-distance athlete hits the'"wall," the individual is experiencing oxygen debt in muscle cells. In those cells, the pyruvate generated in glycolysis would be expected to be converted to
B) lactic acid.
D) carbon dioxide.
The burning sensation associated with muscle fatigue is due to the accumulation of
A) lactic acid.
C) carbon dioxide.
Researchers in Europe are planning a series of controversial experiments to treat patients with the brain degenerative condition known as Parkinson's disease by using
A) fetal brain cells from 6-9-week old human fetuses.
B) stem cells harvested from the spinal cord of the patients.
C) brain tissue from family members.
D) embryonic stem cells from orangutans.
E) brain tissue harvested from recently deceased organ donors.
The process by which embryonic cells go through functional and structural changes to become specialized is
D) in vitro fertilization.
Which of the following is true regarding stem cells?
A) Stem cells grow worse than adult cells in culture.
D) The ideal source of human stem cells is the human embryo when it consists of eight or fewer cells.
Which of the following steps in the breakdown of glucose can occur without oxygen?
B) preparatory step
C) citric acid cycle
D) electron transport system
E) both the citric acid cycle and the electron transport system
Since 2004, Lipodissolve has been used in the United States
A) as a safe alternative to embryonic stem cells used in brain degenerative treatments.
B) to shape and mold the body into a "perfect" shape by targeting triglycerides and fat cells.
C) for a variety of uses approved by the Food and Drug Administration.
Which of the following tissues can respond to the environment by generating electrical signals?
The tissue lining the mouth, organs of the digestive system, and inner surfaces of the lungs is classified as
E) connective and nervous.
The type of muscle responsible for involuntary contractions of the stomach is ________ muscle.
Which of the following wraps around, supports, and holds organs in proper position within the body?
A) loose areolar tissue
E) reticular tissue
Which of the following types of junctions in an epithelium allows the tissue to stretch and bend, as in the epithelium of the skin?
A) tight junction
B) adhesion junction
C) glandular junction
D) stratified junction
E) gap junction
Which of the following is true regarding endocrine glands?
A) As the body matures, endocrine glands develop from specialized exocrine glands.
B) Endocrine glands empty their products into a duCT
E) Endocrine glands produce and secrete hormones.
Which of the following is characteristic of an exocrine gland but not an endocrine gland?
A) produces hormones
B) can generate and transmit nerve impulses
C) requires the presence of a duct
D) releases gland products into the blood
E) is composed entirely of connective tissue
Which of the following is associated with epithelia?
A) loose appearance
B) basement membrane
C) presence of collagen and elastic fibers
D) bi or multi-polar extensions
E) extracellular matrix
In regions of our body that must precisely control what enters or exits our tissues, ________ are present to ensure adjacent cells are packed close together.
A) basement membrane
B) adhesion junctions
D) tight junctions
E) gap junctions
Goblet cells are critical to the movement of food in the body because they
A) secrete mucus in the digestive tract.
B) produce basement membrane for epithelial tissues.
C) synthesize cholesterol.
D) form gap junctions.
E) produce sodium-potassium pumps.
A connective tissue differs from an epithelial tissue in that connective tissue
A) is composed of cells supported by a basement membrane.
B) can produce and secrete products into the BLOODSTREAM
C) is composed of cells that can be described as squamous or cuboidal.
D) is composed primarily of a nonliving extracellular material which is located between the cells.
Which of the following functions is associated with connective tissue?
B) a membrane potential
C) absorption of digestive products
E) tight junctions
The condition or phenomenon known as microchimerism
A) is associated with uncontrollable contractions of skeletal muscles around the eyes.
B) occurs when connective tissue releases excess extracellular matrix in bone.
C) occurs when too little extracellular matrix has been produced in bone tissue.
D) results when cells of maternal origin pass through the placenta to reach the fetus or vice veRSA
In which of the following locations would one expect to find cartilage?
A) between the skin and the underlying muscle
B) between the vertebrae
C) in a tendon
D) in the wall of a blood vessel
E) in adipose tissue
A simple epithelium is not able to
A) absorb nutrients.
B) secrete proteins.
C) exchange gases in lung tissue.
D) release hormones into blood.
E) protect against abrasive foods.
Vasoconstriction is a term that refers to the contraction of muscle in the walls of the blood vessels, thus causing the diameter of the blood vessel to decrease. Which of the following types of muscle would be involved in this contraction?
D) both cardiac and smooth
E) both skeletal and smooth
Which of the following is true regarding glial cells?
A) They are located in the matrix of cartilage.
B) They transmit nerve impulses from the brain to the internal organs.
C) They stimulate the contraction of cardiac muscle.
D) They support and protect neurons.
E) They produce blood plasma.
The abdominal cavity is separated from the thoracic cavity by the
________ is a tissue membrane positioned in thin cavities between bones in movable joints.
A) Synovial membrane
B) Basement membrane
C) Cutaneous membrane
D) Mucous membrane
E) Serous membrane
Which of the following membranes lines the airways and digestive tract?
Which of the fiollowing is found in the dermis?
A) cardiac muscle.
C) sweat gland.
D) pleural cavity.
E) adipose tissue.
Skin functions to
A) absorb sunlight to facilitate the synthesis of vitamin A.
B) initiate muscle contractions.
C) provide protection from dehydration.
D) synthesize components for bone tissue.
E) produce vitamin C.
Which of the following is true regarding skin?
A) The dermis consists of several layers of epithelial cells.
B) Keratin is a protein in the cells of the epidermis that prevents the cells from reproducing.
C) The skin rests on a layer of connective tissue called the hypodermis.
D) The dermis of the skin is primarily composed of fat cells.
A fluid-filled blister develops when excessive rubbing of the skin causes the ________ and ________ to separate from each other.
A) tight junctions, gap junctions
B) epidermis, dermis
C) dermis, hypodermis
D) melanocytes, keratinocytes
E) epidermis, hypodermis
In a negative feedback system, which statement below is true?
A) A sensor detects a stimulus, which in turn amplifies the original disturbance.
B) The body counters the disturbance with a response that restores homeostasis.
C) Homeostasis cannot be re-established until the effector is turned off.
Positive feedback control occurs
A) during maintenance of proper body temperature.
B) when insulin and glucagon regulate blood glucose levels.
C) during the process of childbirth (labor).
D) to counter the effects of negative feedback.
E) in other animals but not in humans.
Which of the following is damaged by exposure to sunlight or tanning lamps?
A) collagen fibers in the dermis
B) small blood vessels
C) elastin fibers
E) all of the above
One reason that fighting obesity is so difficult
A) is because researchers still do not understand why humans gain weight.
B) is because most fat cells tend to shrink or swell but the number of fat cells stays about the same in adults.
C) is because the number of fat cells but not amount of fat increases throughout our adult lives.
During which phase of the cell cycle is DNA replicated?
A) G2 phase
D) S phase
E) G1 of interphase
During which phase of the cell cycle is the nucleus divided?
A) G2 phase
C) S phase
D) late into G0
E) none of the above
DNA is organized and arranged in the nucleus as
A) mitotic spindles.
D) the nucleolus.
E) individual genes.
Which of the following is true regarding the mitotic phase of the cell cycle?
A) the mitotic phase is longer than interphase.
B) during cytokinesis, the cytoplasm divides and four daughter cells result.
C) during mitosis, DNA is divided into two sets and distributed equally to the daughter cells
During which of the following stages of the cell cycle do the chromosomes appear in the form of chromatin?
D) early part of telophase
E) all stages of mitosis
The process by which the DNA code is converted from a single gene into a complementary single strand of mRNA is
Once an RNA molecule has been transcribed from DNA, it enters the cytoplasm of the cell where it is used by the cell to produce a
B) cell membrane.
During DNA replication, the "original" DNA serves as a template for synthesis of the new strand because
A) each strand of the original DNA is first separated from the other.
B) replication of DNA occurs at multiple locations on the original strands as the DNA is unzipped.
During DNA replication, complementary nucleotides are added to the separated strands of the original DNA by enzymes. Which of the following bases would a nucleotide contain if it were paired to a nucleotide containing thymine?
C) another thymine
If during DNA replication, a nucleotide is skipped on the template, this may result
A) in a mutation.
B) in the gene not being functional.
C) in the gene being functional but the resulting protein is not.
D) in the double strands not winding tightly together.
E) all of the above are correct.
Mutations in our DNA rarely impair normal cell function because
A) repair of DNA prevents all mutations from ever causing damage to a cell.
B) damaged cells will commit "suicide" to prevent damage to the body.
C) cells have one major repair enzyme that corrects the mutations quickly.
D) multiple DNA repair enzymes usually quickly correct the mutations before any damage can occur.
Embryo splitting is a type of cloning in which an egg is fertilized in vitro and
A) then the genomic DNA is replaced with that from a desired donor.
B) allowed to reach the fetus stage before implanted into the designated mother.
C) then following mitosis, the intact nuclei are transferred to somatic cells for embryo
D) the cells are split after the 8-cell stage to be implanted into a surrogate mother.
The mRNA produced initially by transcription is larger than the "functional" version because
A) the primary transcript is reduced in size as introns are excised.
B) the 3' end of the primary transcript is always cleaved at the end of transcription.
C) the 5' end of the primary transcript is always is cleaved at the end of transcription.
D) the initial primers are released by the template at the end of transcription.
How many codons are in the following sequence of nucleotides: AAAUGCUCGUAA?
The processes of initiation, elongation, and termination that occur in the production of a protein are all associated with
A) DNA replication.
B) processing of a fat in the endoplasmic reticulum.
C) correction of a mutation.
D) formation of an intact ribosome.
Induced pluripotent stem cells are
A) derived from adults that have been coaxed back into a state where they can differentiate into all kinds of cells.
B) the result of pseudo-differentiation of embryonic stem cells.
C) cloned adult cells resulting from nuclear transfer of embryonic DNA.
D) established from adult neuronal tissues.
A codon is
A) a type of DNA repair enzyme.
B) a promoter that prevents the attachment of RNA polymerase.
C) a sequence of three nitrogenous bases on mRNA that corresponds to an amino acid.
D) the part of the ribosome to which mRNA attaches.
E) a sequence of three nitrogenous bases on tRNA that corresponds to an amino acid.
It is evident that translation occurs at ribosomes because they contain binding sites for
A) primary transcripts of mRNA.
B) DNA repair enzymes.
D) tRNA and mRNA.
E) mitotic spindles.
19) Which stage of mitosis is shown in the diagram and which stage comes next?
A) anaphase, telophase
B) telophase, anaphase
C) prophase, anaphase
D) metaphase, anaphase
E) metaphase, telophase
Chromosomes begin to shorten and condense during which of the following stages of the cell cycle?
Mitosis differs from meiosis in that only mitosis
A) is preceded by interphase.
B) involves two successive cell divisions.
C) results in the production of haploid cells.
D) involves the pairing of homologous chromosomes during prophase I.
E) results in cells that are genetically identical to the original cell.
At the end of meiosis I, which best describes the chromosomes in the cells?
A) DNA replication in the S phase has led to a doubling in chromosome number.
B) The cells contain the haploid number of chromosomes.
C) Chromosome number and structure are identical to the beginning of the S phase.
D) The cells contain the diploid number of chromosomes.
Cloning of human cells for the purpose of treating a patient is referred to as
A) embryo splitting.
C) somatic cell nuclear transfer.
D) medicinal cloning.
E) therapeutic cloning.
The process by which cells become specialized from one another is called
D) meiotic specialization.
Therapeutic cloning differs from reproductive cloning in that therapeutic cloning
A) results in the production of human stem cells to treat human diseases.
B) involves the use of embryos.
C) results in an individual genetically identical to the DNA donor.
D) is not a controversial topic.
E) involves transfer of genomic DNA into a recipient somatic cell.
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