Last Modified: 2012-03-13
When a patient asks the nurse what hypersensitivity is, how should the nurse respond? Hypersensitivity is best defined as:
Hypersensitivity is an altered immunologic response to an antigen that results in disease or damage to the individual..
A 5-year-old female takes a hike through the woods during a school field trip. Upon returning home, she hugs her father, and he later develops poison ivy. Which of the following immune reactions is he experiencing?
Secondary contact activates a type IV cell-mediated reaction that causes dermatitis.
Alloimmunity can be observed during immunologic reactions against transfusions, transplanted tissue, or the fetus during pregnancy.
Seasonal allergic rhinitis is expressed through IgE-mediated reactions.
A patient presents with poison ivy on the extremities, face, and buttocks. This condition is an example of:
The response to poison ivy is a delayed hypersensitivity because it takes up 72 hours to develop.
A 10-year-old male is stung by a bee while playing in the yard. He begins itching and develops pain, swelling, redness, and respiratory difficulties. He is suffering from:
Anaphylaxis occurs within minutes of reexposure to the antigen and can be either systemic (generalized) or cutaneous (localized).
When a patient presents at the emergency department for an allergic reaction, the nurse recognizes the most severe consequence of a type I hypersensitivity reaction is:
The most rapid and severe immediate hypersensitivity type I reaction is anaphylaxis.
When histamine is released in the body, which of the following responses would the nurse expect?
Increased vascular permeability leads to edema and is a direct response to histamine..
Which information would indicate more teaching is needed regarding hypersensitivity reactions? Type _______ hypersensitivity reactions involve an antibody response.
Type IV reactions are mediated by T lymphocytes and do not involve antibodies.
A 10-year-old male presents to his primary care provider reporting wheezing and difficulty breathing. History reveals that both of the child’s parents suffer from allergies. Which of the following terms would be used to classify the child?
Atopic individuals are genetically predisposed to the development of allergies.
female reporting fatigue, excessive sweating, and increased appetite. protruding eyes, and testing reveals hyperthyroidism secondary to autoantibody production. This disorder falls into the category of type _____ hypersensitivity.
The patient is experiencing type II hypersensitivity. In hyperthyroidism, autoantibody binds to and activates receptors for thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) (a pituitary hormone that controls the production of the hormone thyroxine by the thyroid).
A male is having difficulty breathing and has been spitting blood. he began experiencing this reaction after cleaning his pigeons’ cages. Testing reveals he is suffering from allergic alveolitis. Which of the following is he experiencing?
The Arthus reaction is a model of localized or cutaneous reactions.
Serum sickness-type reactions are caused by the formation of immune complexes in the blood and their subsequent generalized deposition in target tissues. Typically affected tissues are the blood vessels, joints, and kidneys.
Immune-complex disease can be a systemic reaction, such as serum sickness and related to type III reactions.
Tuberculosis testing is an example of type IV hypersensitivity
When a nurse cares for a patient with systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE), the nurse remembers this disease is an example of:
SLE is the most common, complex, and serious of the autoimmune disorders.
A 30-year-old female complains of fatigue, arthritis, rash, and changes in urine color. Laboratory testing reveals anemia, lymphopenia, and kidney inflammation. Assuming a diagnosis of SLE, which of the following is also likely to be present?
The presence of antinuclear antibodies is a diagnostic criterion for SLE.
A 40-year-old female is diagnosed with SLE. Which of the following findings would be considered a symptom of this disease?
Photosensitivity is one of the 11 common clinical findings in SLE
What is the chance that two siblings share both HLA haplotypes, making them a good match for an organ transplant from one to the other?
Odds dictate that children will share one haplotype with half their siblings and either no haplotypes or both haplotypes with a quarter of their siblings. Thus, the chance of finding a match among siblings is much higher (25%) than the general population.
When a nurse notices that a patient has type O blood, the nurse realizes that anti-_____ antibodies are present in the patient’s body.
Type O individuals have both anti-A and anti-B antibodies
In addition to matching ABO antigens, a blood transfusion must also be matched for:
Blood transfusions must also be matched for the Rh antigen.
A male suffers from severe hemorrhage. He is given a blood transfusion, but shortly afterward the red blood cells are destroyed by agglutination and lysis. Which blood type-transfusion type matches would cause this?
A person with type A blood also has circulating antibodies to the B carbohydrate antigen. If this person receives blood from a type AB or B individual, a severe transfusion reaction occurs, and the transfused erythrocytes are destroyed by agglutination or complement-mediated lysis
When an immunologist teaches about the relationship that benefits the organism but causes no harm to the host, the immunologist is describing which of the following?
Commensalism benefits only the microorganism; there is no harm to the human. become pathogenic because of decreased human-host resistance.)
Normal flora are provided with nutrients from ingested food, and in exchange they produce enzymes that produce antibacterial factors that prevent colonization by pathogenic microorganisms.
When bacterial pathogens enter a patient’s body, they can defend themselves from an immune response by:
Bacterial survival and growth depend on the effectiveness of the body’s defense mechanisms and on the bacterium’s ability to resist these defenses
A person is given an attenuated antigen as a vaccine. When the person asks what was given in the vaccine, how should the nurse respond? The antigen is:
Attenuated vaccines are alive, but less infectious.
An immunologist is discussing endotoxin production. Which information should the immunologist include? Endotoxins are produced by:
Endotoxins are produces by gram-negative bacteria
A male becomes ill with a severe cough. examination reveals a bacterial infection, and further testing reveals cell membrane damage and decreased protein synthesis. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this illness?
Exotoxins are enzymes that can damage the plasma membranes of host cells or can inactivate enzymes critical to protein synthesis, and endotoxins activate the inflammatory response and produce fever.
A 50-year-old female experiences decreased blood pressure, decreased oxygen delivery, cardiovascular shock, and subsequent death. A complication of endotoxic shock is suspected. Which of the following is the most likely cause?
Symptoms of gram-negative septic shock are produced by endotoxins. Once in the blood, endotoxins cause the release of vasoactive peptides and cytokines that affect blood vessels, producing vasodilation, which reduces blood pressure, causes decreased oxygen delivery, and produces subsequent cardiovascular shock.
After studying about viruses, which information indicates the student has a good understanding of viruses? Viruses:
Virus replication depends totally on their ability to infect a permissive host cell, a cell that cannot resist viral invasion and replication.
A patient has chicken pox. How does the varicella replicate?
Generally, all RNA viruses replicate their genetic material in the cytoplasm of the infected cell.
A 25-year-old female reports having unprotected sexual intercourse with several men. Blood tests reveal that she is positive for human papillomavirus. What else should the nurse assess for?
Direct contact with papillomavirus can lead to warts
After studying about fungi, which information indicates a correct understanding of fungi? Fungi causing deep or systemic infections:
Diseases caused by fungi are called mycoses. Mycoses can be opportunistic.
When trying to distinguish between an infectious disease and noninfectious disease, what is the hallmark symptom for most infectious diseases?
The hallmark of most infectious diseases is fever
Which information indicates a correct understanding of viral vaccines? Most viral vaccines contain:
Viral vaccines contain live viruses that are weakened (attenuated).
Which information indicates a good understanding of bacterial vaccines? Most bacterial vaccines contain:
Vaccines are biological preparations of weakened or dead pathogens that when administered stimulate production of antibodies or cellular immunity against the pathogen without causing disease.
A nurse recalls bacteria become resistant to antimicrobials by:
Antibiotic resistance is usually a result of genetic mutations that can be transmitted directly to neighboring microorganisms by plasmid exchange
What common symptom should be assessed in individuals with immunodeficiency?
The clinical hallmark of immunodeficiency is a propensity to unusual or recurrent severe infections. The type of infection usually reflects the immune system defect.
A 5-year-old male presents with low-set ears, a fish-shaped mouth, and involuntary rapid muscular contraction. Laboratory testing reveals decreased calcium levels. Which of the following diagnosis is most likely?
DiGeorge syndrome results in greatly decreased T cell numbers and function and is evidenced by abnormal development of facial features that are controlled by the same embryonic pouches; these include low-set ears, fish-shaped mouth, and other altered features.
A 22-year-old was recently diagnosed with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS). Which decreased lab finding would be expected to accompany this virus?
The major immunologic finding in AIDS is the striking decrease in the number of CD4-positive (CD4+) T cells.
Which of the following is a characteristic of the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV), which causes AIDS?
AIDS is an acquired dysfunction of the immune system caused by a retrovirus (HIV) that infects and destroys CD4+ lymphocytes (T-helper cells).
A 30-year-old male was diagnosed with HIV. Which of the following treatments would be most effective?
Highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART)
The current regimen for treatment of HIV infection is a combination of drugs, termed highly active antiretroviral therapy (HAART).
When the immunologist says that pathogens possess infectivity, what is the immunologist explaining? Infectivity allows pathogens to:
Infectivity is the ability of the pathogen to invade and multiply in the host.
When the immunologist says that pathogens possess virulence, what does virulence mean?
Virulence is the capacity of a pathogen to cause severe disease—for example, measles virus is of low virulence; rabies virus is highly virulent.
The nurse would correctly respond that the etiology of a congenital immune deficiency is due to a(n):
A primary (congenital) immune deficiency is caused by a genetic defect.
An infant is experiencing hemolytic disease of the newborn. Which of the following would the nurse expect to find in the infant’s history and physical?
Hemolytic disease of the newborn was most commonly caused by IgG anti-D alloantibody produced by Rh-negative mothers against erythrocytes of their Rh-positive fetuses.
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