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DNA synthesis proceeds in which direction?
a) 5’ to 3’ on the lagging strand, 3’ to 5’ on the leading strand.
b) 3’ to 5’ on the lagging strand, 5’ to 3’ on the leading strand.
c) 5’ to 3’, regardless of strand.
d) 3’ to 5’, regardless of strand.
In bacterial genetics, a high frequency of cotransformation indicates that:
a) the bacterium possesses an R plasmid.
b) the bacterium is infected with a prophage.
c) two genes are close together on a chromosome.
d) transduction is generalized.
The Lambda phage is an example of a(n):
a) conjugative plasmid.
b) insertion sequence.
c) specialized transducing phage.
d) lytic phage.
The 3' end of DNA ends in what functional group?
a) phosphate bond
b) amino group
c) hydroxyl group
d) carboxyl group
c) hydroxyl group
Which property of Pol I distinguishes it from Pol III?
a) Possesses 3’ exonuclease for proofreading.
b) Constructs second strand using deoxy-trinucleotides.
c) Needs a primer with a 3’ hydroxyl group.
d) It is able to eliminate RNA primers.
The transfer of DNA from one bacterium to another via a phage is called:
Which of these mobile DNA elements would most efficiently move DNA from one bacterial cell to another bacterial cell without death to the donor?
a) Conjugative plasmid.
d) Generalized transduction phage.
In DNA replication, after the RNA primer has been removed, the two precursor (Okazaki) fragments are covalently connected using this enzyme:
a) SSB (single-stranded binding) protein.
b) DNA ligase.
c) DNA polymerase I.
d) DNA polymerase III.
In the presence of lytic phages, bacterial cultures develop:
a) growing colonies of transduced bacteria.
b) clear patches where all bacteria have been killed.
c) colonies of blue-colored bacteria.
d) uniform lawn of growing bacteria.
The change in genotype of a cell resulting from exposure to DNA from another cell with a different genotype is called:
b) selected marker.
What is the essential difference between a simple insertion sequence (IS) and a compound transposable element?
a) No difference; these are two terms that refer to the same thing.
b) An IS carries only a gene for transposase; a transposon carries other genes also.
c) A transposon carries an origin of replication; an IS does not.
d) A transposon is capable of rolling-circle-replication; an IS is not.
Hfr cells are E. coli cells that have what incorporated into their chromosome?
a) A plasmid that engages in theta replication.
b) A plasmid that engages in rolling-circle replication.
c) A generalized transducting phage.
d) A specialized transducing phage.
What was the isotope that Messelson and Stahl used to demonstrate semiconservative replication of DNA?
Plasmids that can replicate separately as an independent molecule or become incorporated into the bacterial chromosome are called:
In PCR, what happens during annealing?
b) DNA primers anneal to their complementary sequences.
A phage who’s DNA is incorporated into the bacterial genome is called a(n):
In Lambda, left hand promoters express genes that involved in lysogeny; right hand promoters are for genes involved with lysis. Which of the following proteins would be expressed by a left-handed promoter?
a) Excisionase (site specific recombinase that allows for prophage DNA to excise out of the bacterial genome).
b) Integrase (site specific recombinase that allows for phage DNA to integrate into the bacterial genome).
c) Capsid proteins.
d) Proteins that cause the bacterial cell to lyse.
Polypeptide chains are synthesized by the action of ribosomes. Which end of the new polypeptide emerges from the ribosome first (i.e., which end is made first)?
Which of these techniques is most useful to determine the location of important regulatory sequences, like enhancers.
a) Targeted mutagenesis.
b) Transformation rescue.
d) Codon analysis.
In one lab, there were 12 people with TPA+/TPA+, 22 with TPA+/TPA– and 8 TPA–/TPA–. What was the allele frequency of TPA– allele among the lab members? (TPA+ = AluI insertion; TPA– = no insertion)
a) Less than 30
b) Between 30 and 35
c) Between 36 and 39
d) 40 or higher
When you know what the function of a gene product but are trying to determine the DNA sequence, it is called:
a) Reverse genetics.
b) Forward genetics.
c) Functional genomics.
Which of the following would be an example of gene regulation by chromatin remodeling?
a) Modifying transcription factors so that they do not adhere to enhancers.
b) Activate repressor proteins so they prevent transcription.
c) Degrading mRNA using RISC.
d) Modifying histones so that nucleosomes tighten up into 30 nm fibers.
In eukaryotic translation, the initiation complex assembles at what position on the mRNA?
a) The TATA box
b) The 5' cap
c) The ORF
d) The AUG codon
If a gene has two or more alleles that are common in a population, it is said to be:
c) selectively neutral.
The genotype frequency for one marker is 0.40. The genotype frequency for the second is only 0.10. The genotype frequency for the third is 0.30. What proportion of the general population is expected to also match the crime scene blood?
a) Less than 0.001
b) Between 0.001 and 0.005
c) Between 0.005 and 0.010
d) Greater than 0.010
Attenuation of the trp operon in E. coli is possible because of this feature that is not found in eukaryotes:
a) stop codons.
b) codons for tryptophan.
c) coupling of transcription and translation.
d) tRNAs for tryptophan.
For two alleles (A and a) in a population, p = q = 0.5, but from a small sample we observed 3 AA, 8 Aa and 5 aa. What would the chi-square statistic be?
Which of these is the restriction site for EcoRI?
Hemophilia A (X-linked) occurs in approximately 1 in 5,000 males. What is the expected rate among women?
a) Square root of 1/5000
d) None; this disease is restricted to males.
Germ-line transformation in Drosophila is usually accomplished using a(n):
a) T DNA insert.
b) DNA chips.
c) a P element.
d) A retrovirus.
Which of these is a property of RNA polymerase?
a) Ability to remain on DNA template until termination sequence is reached.
b) 3’ exonuclease activity.
c) 5” exonuclease activity.
d) Ligase activity.
Which one of the following genotype frequencies of AA, Aa and aa, respectively does NOT satisfy the Hardy-Weinberg principle?
a) 0.25, 0.75, 0.25
b) 0.49, 0.42, 0.09
c) 0.16, 0.48, 0.36
d) 0.04, 0.32, 0.64
In the trp operon, the tryptophan-aporepressor complex binds to this site.
Transcription of the ara operon is prevented by binding of a repressor protein. When arabinose is present, it binds to the repressor and allows the ara operon to be transcribed. How would you describe this mode of regulation?
a) Negative regulation: inducible.
b) Positive regulation: inducible.
c) Negative regulation: repressible.
d) Positive regulation; repressible.
A carrier for recombinant DNA is called a(n):
c) transfer element.
d) transposable element.
What does the presence of cAMP indicate in E. coli?
a) Lactose is absent.
b) Lactose is present.
c) Glucose is absent.
d) Glucose is present.
Which of these vectors is capable of holding the largest insert?
a) Bacterial artificial chromosome
b) Lambda phage
c) High copy number plasmid
RNA polymerase binds to DNA wherever the DNA has a particular site called a(n):
a) First AUG codon on an mRNA.
d) Shine-Delgarno sequence.
If 1/30,000 individuals in a population are phenylketonurics (not sex linked), then according to Hardy-Weinberg we could conclude that the recessive allele frequency is ________.
a) the square root of 1/30,000
c) 2 x 1/30,000 x (1 – 1/30,000)
d) 1/30,000 squared
Which of these cause translation to terminate?
a) A termination loop forms on the mRNA.
b) RISC attaches to complementary mRNA sequence.
c) Stop codon is reached.
d) Rho protein attaches to stop sequence.
Which of these primers could be used to make cDNA using mRNA as a template?
d) The template is RNA so primers are not needed.
What underlies the fact that the 15qll deletion can cause either Prader-Willi syndrome or Angelman syndrome depending upon the parent?
a) Genomic repressor proteins
b) These are X-linked genes
c) Alternative splicing
d) Epigenetic silencing by parents
In one population, the frequency of the A blood-type allele is 0.40, the B allele is 0.20 and the O allele is 0.40. What is the expected frequency of people with the B blood phenotype in this population?
a) Below 15%
b) Between 15-25%
c) Between 26-35%
d) Between 36-45%
Leber optic atrophy is an inherited syndrome that results from a mutation in a mitochondrial gene. If a man has this syndrome, what is the chance that his children would inherit this disease?
a) All of his children would inherit this disease.
b) All of his boys, but none of his girls would inherit this disease.
c) None of his boys but all of his girls would inherit this disease.
d) None of his children would inherit this disease.
Yeast has three separate genes, GAL1, GAL7, and GAL10, that must be coordinately regulated in response to the presence or absence of galactose. How is this done?
a) GAL1, GAL7, and GAL10 are polycistronic.
b) GAL1, GAL7, and GAL10 use the same transcriptional activator.
c) GAL1, GAL7, and GAL10 are part of the same operon.
d) GAL1, GAL7, and GAL10 heavily methylated.
What happens to T DNA at the time it is removed from the Ti plasmid?
a) It is converted to cDNA with reverse transcriptase.
b) It is stabilized by single-stranded binding proteins.
c) It is immediately made double stranded using Okazaki fragments.
d) It is degraded by Dicer enzymes.
Which element of the lac operon encodes a transporter that allows lactose to more easily permeate the cell?
Which of these events activates the peptidal transferase function in the ribosome?
a) The initiation complex assembles on the 5’ cap.
b) A new “charged” tRNA enters the A site of the ribosome.
c) The ribosome reaches a stop codon.
d) The ribosome reaches an intron.
Duplicate genes that have lost their function are called:
a) orthologous genes.
c) paralogous genes.
d) synonymous genes.
The absence of a nucleus in prokaryotes allows:
a) the addition of poly-A tails in the cytoplasm before transcription is complete.
b) translation of mRNA to be completed before translations begins.
c) the ribosome to attach to an mRNA before transcription is complete.
d) The ribosome to attach to the promoter.
What happens to double-stranded RNA in our cells.
a) They are degraded into single nucleotides by RNase A.
b) They are made single stranded by RNA helicase.
c) They are cut into short strands by Dicer.
d) They are converted to DNA by reverse transcriptase.
Which of these is true about the differences between the clones found in a cDNA library and a genomic library?
a) There are no differences; the clones are exactly the same.
b) Any T in a genomic library is replaced by U in a cDNA library.
c) No promoters will be found in clones of cDNA library.
d) A cDNA library will contain introns; a genomic library will not.
The yeast GAL1 gene is allowed to express when galactose binds to:
a) the GAL1 promoter.
Which of these are NOT assumptions of the Hardy-Weinberg principle?
a) Matings are random within the population.
b) There are no mutations within the population.
c) Recessive alleles become rare within the population.
a) No gene transfer between populations.
The following statements are true for DNA replication. Which is NOT true for transcription?
a) A single-stranded DNA template is needed.
b) Original DNA template is permanently separated.
c) A polymerase is needed.
d) Nucleotides are added only to the 3’ end of a growing nucleotide chain.
In eukaryotes, transcriptional activators attach to this type of DNA sequence.
c) Start codon
d) TATA box
In 2-dimensional protein gel electrophoresis, the proteins are first separated by:
a) size (how many amino acids).
b) shape (tertiary structure).
c) affinity to silica gels.
d) net charge of side groups.
Where does the ribosome assemble on prokaryotic mRNA?
a) On the 5’ cap of the mRNA.
b) Only on the AUG closest to the 5’ end.
c) On the ribosome binding site of each cistron.
d) On the promoter of the transcript.
An aporepressor must have the following in order to be able to engage in repression of transcription.
b) A co-repressor molecule
c) An inducer molecule
d) An enhancer molecule
In eukaryotic translation, the fully formed ribosome is completed when the initiation complex reaches this site and recruits the 60S ribosomal subunit.
a) The promoter
b) The 5' cap
c) The AUG codon
d) The ribosome binding site
Under certain staining conditions, “speckles” can be seen in the nucleus. These appear to be localization of:
a) mRNA processing proteins.
b) rRNA proteins.
c) nuclear pore complexes.
d) kinetochore proteins.
The cell cycle is regulated by the presence and absence of cyclins, which activate these proteins that actually do the work of moving the cell from one phase of the cell cycle to another:
a) receptor tyrosine kinases.
c) checkpoint kinases.
d) cyclin-dependent kinases.
The nuclear membrane is continuous with the:
a) golgi complex.
b) rough endoplasmic reticulum.
c) cytoplasmic membrane.
d) nucleoplasm .
What is a quantitative trait locus (QTL)?
a) Any gene whose genotype can only be determined using PCR.
b) Any locus that displays broad sense heritability.
c) Any locus with a large quantity of alleles.
d) Any locus that segregates for alleles that contribute to a complex trait.
In which phase of the cell cycle are centrosomes replicated?
Which of these is a neurological disorder that arises without warning in a family due to a dynamic mutation?
a) Alzheimer disease
b) Hemophilia A
c) Huntignton disease
Which of these proteins would be expected to have a nuclear localization signal?
b) ATP synthase beta subunit
All of the following are complex traits. Which is a “threshold” trait?
a) Type II diabetes.
b) Eye color.
c) Number of skin moles.
d) Body weight.
When the importin-cargo complex passes through a nuclear pore into the nucleus, it is met and bound by this molecule, which causes the disassembly of the complex.
a) Nuclear localization signal.
If twin studies determined that environment explains 43% of the occurrence of type II diabetes, what is its broad-sense heritability?
a) Between 0 & 25%
b) Between 25 & 50%
c) Between 50 & 75%
d) Between 75 & 100%
Alkylating agents, such as ethyl methanesulfonate, act as potent mutagenic agents by:
a) adding bulky amino groups to DNA bases.
b) causing pyrimidine dimers.
c) causing purine dimers.
d) adding alkyl groups to DNA bases.
A sampling of five Bio-Micro professors yielded the following count of visible nose hairs: 9, 13, 9, 8, and 11. What is the variance?
When breeding for one trait, for example docility in fur foxes, an undesired trait, for example a change in fur color, may also be selected. The unselected (and usually undesirable) trait is known as a(n):
a) correlated response.
b) genotype-environment interaction.
c) selection limit.
d) inbreeding depression.
What is exportin?
a) A component of the nuclear pore complex.
b) A transport receptor recognized by the nuclear pore complex.
c) A nuclear signal necessary for exocytosis.
d) A component of speckles.
A change from A to C is called a _______ mutation?
A condition where a population no longer responds to the artificial selection for a trait is called the:
a) truncation point.
b) selection limit.
c) correlated response.
d) inbreeding depression.
In order to START the cell cycle, cyclin dependent kinases are activated by these molecules:
a) Cyclin A
b) Cyclin B
c) Cyclin C
d) Cyclin D
How is cytokinesis accomplished in plants?
a) The cell membrane is constricted (pinched) using actin and myosin.
b) Microfibrils are laid in parallel by cellulose synthase.
c) The cell wall is constricted using microtubules and kinesins.
d) A cell plate is built by joining vesicles delivered by the phragmoplast.
Ultra violet light causes:
a) Adenine dimers.
b) Guanine dimers.
c) Purine dimers.
d) Thymine dimers.
If big dogs tend to have shorter lifespans, then the correlation coefficient between dog size and years lived is:
a) greater than one.
b) greater than zero but less than one.
c) close to zero.
d) less than zero.
Fetal alcohol syndrome may result when a pregnant woman consumes excess amounts of alcohol. The syndrome is not passed on to the grandchildren. In this case, alcohol may act as a:
c) alkylating agent.
d) intercalating agent.
Broad-sense heritability (H2) is the ratio of:
a) phenotypic variance divided by the environmental variance.
b) environmental variance divided by the phenotypic variance.
c) genotypic variance divided by the phenotypic variance.
d) environmental variance divided by the genotypic variance.
In which phase of the cell cycle are most cells in our body?
Two inbred maize lines were crossed to make an F1 that had an average leaf width of 10 cm and a variance of 2 cm2. The F1 line was open-pollinated to produce an F2 line, which also had a mean of 10 cm but a variance of 4 cm2.
What is the broad sense heritability for leaf width?
a) 1/4 or 25%
b) 1/2 or 50%
c) 2/3 or 67%
d) 3/4 or 75%
DNA transposons use this mechanism:
a) cut-and-paste transposition.
b) reverse transcriptase.
c) replication slippage.
d) non-LTR retrotransposons.
Your pumpkins average 20 pounds. You only use seed from the larger pumpkins that averaged 30 pounds. If the narrow-sense heritability for pumpkin weight is 40%, what is the expected average weight of next year’s pumpkins?
a) 24 pounds
b) 26 pounds
c) 34 pounds
d) 36 pounds
The nucleus typically (not in mitosis) has one or more of these densely staining structures, where ribosomes are assembled.
The spontaneous breakage of the covalent bond between a double-ringed base from it deoxyribose backbone is:
a) pyrimidine dimerization
b) purine dimerization.
Which of these is a Cdk inhibitor?
c) Cyclin D
The inner surface of the nuclear envelope of animal cells is bound by integral membrane proteins to a thin filamentous meshwork, called the:
a) basal lamina.
b) basal matrix.
d) nuclear lamina.
In a heritability experiment, an F1 generation is compared to its F2. What is expected?
a) F1 and F2 should have equal means and equal variances.
b) F1 and F2 should have different means and different variances.
c) F1 and F2 should have equal means but different variances.
d) F1 and F2 should have different means but equal variances.
What protein promotes single-strand invasion of a homologous double-stranded DNA during recombination?
From a population of cave fish, you measure eye size and determine their average. You breed only the large-eyed fish, whose average eye is twice the original population. When they grow up you measure the average eye size of the progeny. What will these data tell you?
a) Nothing, only the distribution.
b) It will tell you the environmental variance.
c) It will allow you to estimate h2 for eye size.
d) It will allow you to estimate H2 for eye size.
The Ames test is a method of determining:
a) what nutrients are necessary for bacteria to grow.
b) how mutagenetic some agent is.
c) what enzymes are necessary to synthesize histidine.
d) the genotypic variance found in bacteria.
Adenine, guanine and cytosine are all subject to deamination, but only cytosine is potential problem. Why?
a) When cytosine is methylated, deamination converts it to thymine, which is a true DNA base.
b) Deamination of adenine and guanine immediately leads to cell death, so the problem is solved.
c) When cytosine is deaminated, it is converted to uracil, which prevents the gene from being transcribed.
If the average weight of dogs in Brookings is 9 kg with a standard deviation of 4kg, what is the variance?
The process of the spindle poles moving apart at anaphase (as opposed to the chromosomes being pulled toward the poles) is called
a) anaphase A.
b) anaphase B.
c) anaphase C.
d) anaphase D.
The timing of meiosis in the life cycle can be organized into three groups. Human meiosis is:
d) humans don’t have meiosis.
Which of these is NOT a way to regulate Cdk activity?
a) Inhibitor molecules such as p21
b) Subcellular localization of cyclin out of the nucleus.
c) Hydrolyze a GTP that is attached to Cdk.
d) Phosphorylate Cdks.
What is the relationship between antigens and epitopes?
a) They are two words the mean the same thing.
b) One epitope can have multiple antigens.
c) One antigen can have multiple epitopes.
d) One antigen can have only one epitope.
Genetically, oncogenes act in a(n) ________ fashion.
c) loss of function
4. Which of these describes the action of the RB protein in regulating the cell cycle?
a) RB sequesters the E2F transcription factor until RB is phosphorylated by Cyclin D/CDK complex.
b) RB attaches to mitochondria, allowing the release of cytochrome c.
c) RB attaches to p53, causing it to be removed from the nucleus.
d) RB acts as a GAP to Ras, preventing the activation of MAP kinase pathway.
Which of these is NOT true about Ras?
a) 30% of cancers involve a mutated Ras gene.
b) They are G-proteins composed of a single, small subunit.
c) Activated by cAMP.
d) They are a key component to MAP kinase pathways.
Which of these explains how clonal selection of B cells work?
a) B cells with an antibody that doesn’t recognize antigens will continue to redevelop new ones until they do.
b) B cells develop antibodies without regard as to whether or not they will be useful.
c) B cells only develop antibodies after they have been exposed to potentially dangerous antigen.
d) B cells develop multiple antibodies, but only the one that works the best will be used.
Apoptosis refers to the process:
a) of any kind of cell death.
b) of lymphocyte cell activation.
c) of progression of cell toward cancer.
d) of an orderly breakdown of a cell.
The acquired immune response is characterized by two broad categories: Cell mediated immunity and humoral immunity. Humoral immunity is carried out by:
c) Natural killer cells.
d) Cytotoxic T cells.
. In a signal transduction pathway, which of the following terms would best describe the steroid hormone?
Which of these proteins are encoded by a protooncogene?
In a signal transduction pathway, which of the following terms would best describe GPCR?
Why is loss of p53 in cancer cells problematic?
a) Cells less responsive to chemotherapy.
b) The p53 protein is necessary to lengthen telomeres.
c) The p53 protein is a key component of the spindle checkpoint.
d) Loss of p53 results in spontaneous apoptosis.
Which of the following could cause a protooncogene to become an oncogene?
a) Increase in copy number.
b) Reduction in copy number.
c) A loss-of-function mutation.
d) A reduction in function mutation.
How can promoter fusion promote cancer?
a) By turning a tumor suppressor gene into a tumor promoter gene.
b) By placing a strong promoter in front of a tumor suppressor gene.
c) By turning a protooncogene into a pseudooncogene.d) By placing a strong promoter in front of a protooncogene
Acetylcholine release in the vascular system causes vessels to dilate, which seems counterintuitive. In this case, the acetylcholine receptors of endothelial cells allow Ca2+ to enter the cells, but the Ca2+ is bound by which of these molecules?
d) sarcoplasmic reticulum
The p53 protein allows for the transcription of both p21, which stops the cell cycle, and BAX, which promotes apoptosis. Which of these words describes how activation of one protein initiates two separate pathways?
Which of these is true about cytotoxic T-cells?
a) Their T receptors interact with MHC class I, which are presenting peptides processed by proteasomes.
b) Their T receptors interact with MHC class II, which are presenting peptides processed by proteasomes.
c) Their T receptors interact with MHC class I, which are presenting peptides processed by lysosomes.
d) Their T receptors interact with MHC class II, which are presenting peptides processed by lysosomes.
Bcl2 is encoded by a protooncogene, because over-expression of this protein:
a) acts to accelerate the cell cycle.
b) prevents Bax from initiating apoptosis.
c) increases the ability of the cell to engage in apoptosis.
d) activates true oncogenes.
Which of these protein complexes promotes apoptosis?
a) Bcl2/Bcl2 homodimers
b) Bax/Bax homodimers
c) Bax/Ras heterodimers.
d) Ras/Ras homodimers.
Cells with the loss of p21 typically exhibit:
a) failure of the G1-S checkpoint.
b) failure of G2-M checkpoint.
c) failure of Spindle checkpoint.
d) failure of centrosome checkpoint.
How is an activated G protein typically deactivated?
a) A GEF will exchange its GDP with a GTP.
b) A GEF will exchange its GTP with a GDP.
c) A GAP will exchange its GDP with a GTP.
d) A GAP will cause the G protein to hydrolize its own GTP to GDP.
During an immune response, most B cells are activated by:
a) T-cells that are MHC I restricted.
b) T-cells that are MHC II restricted.
c) Macrophages that are MHC I restricted.
d) Cytotoxic T cells.
In both the extrinsic and intrinsic apoptosis pathways, what activates executioner caspases?
a) Initiator caspases
b) Necrosis factors
c) Release of protons from the mitochondrion
Which of these is NOT an attribute of cancer cell?
a) Is capable of an unlimited number of cell cycles.
b) It is commonly aneuploidy.
c) It is not inhibited by being crowded by other cells.
d) Needs to be anchored to an appropriate substrate in order to divide.
Blood tests for antibodies can show what kind of infection the immune system has been responding to. If the levels of IgM for a flu antigen is higher than IgG for the same antigen, what can you conclude?
a) The patient is early in his first infection from this flu.
b) The patient is late in his first infection from this flu.
c) The patient is early in his second infection from this flu.
d) The patient is late in the second infection from this flu.
Familial susceptibility to cancer typically involves the inheritance of one non-functional copy of a:
c) tumor suppressor gene
d) Ras gene
n normal cells, Mdm2 interacts directly with the p53:
The accumulation of mutations that transforms a normal cell to a cancer cell is called:
What does caffeine do in liver cells?
a) Inhibits production of cAMP.
b) Increases production of cAMP.
c) Inhibits activity of PKA.
d) Increases cellular response to glucagon.
Which of these proteins does a tumor-suppressor gene NOT encode?
c) Cyclin D
Which of these describes a cancer promoting gene that analogous to a broken accelerator?
c) tumor suppressor gene
d) apoptosis promoting gene
When do V-J joining and V-D-J joining take place?
a) Differentiation of stem cell to become a B-cell.
b) When B-cell is activated by T-cell.
c) Differentiation of B-cell to become a plasma cell.
d) When plasma cell is activated by T-cell.
Cancer cells are often aneuploid, which means that they:
a) have no telomeres.
b) extra copies of some chromosomes and less copies of others.
c) do not respond to contact inhibition.
d) have reciprocal translocations.
Radiation and chemotherapy are believed to be effective in treating cancer because they trigger:
a) cytotoxic T-cells.
b) natural killer cells.
c) programmed cell death.
d) activation of oncogenes.
Which of these conditions will induce apoptosis of a T-cell?
a) Strong affinity of TCR to a thymic cell’s MHC and peptide.
b) Strong affinity of TCR to a B cell’s MHC and peptide.
c) Strong affinity of TCR to a macrophage’s MHC and peptide.
d) Strong affinity of TCR to a dendritic cell’s MHC and peptide.
In the same cartoon, where did the thymus cell get the antigenic fragment B?
a) From extracellular proteins it engulfed by phagocytosis.
b) From extracellular proteins it engulfed by endocytosis.
c) From proteins endogenous to the thymus cell.
d) From proteins transferred from a T-cell.
The RAS gene sometimes become an oncogene by a mutation that:
a) eliminates both copies of the gene.
b) eliminates one copy of the gene.
c) eliminates the ability of the Ras protein to interact with a GAP.
d) eliminates the ability of the Ras protein to interact with a GEF.
The phosphorylated inositol rings of phosphatidylinositol serve as binding sites for proteins possessing a(n):
a) PTB domain.
b) SH2 domain.
c) APC domain.
d) PH domain.
Which of these proteins are promoted by the E2F transcription factor.
a) Proteins that promote the S phase
b) Proteins that promote the G1 phase
c) Proteins that promote mitosis
d) Proteins that promote G2 phase
A protein that possess a PTB domain will have specificity for what?
b) Phosphorylated tyrosines
c) Phosphorylated serines
d) Phosphorylated cAMP
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