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(S6) What is the most common cause of a bacterial sore throat?
Streptococcus pyogenes – AKA Group A Streptococcus
(S6) Clinically, what kind of sore throat does streptococcus pyogenes cause?
Acute follicular tonsillitis
(S9) What are the acute complications of streptococcal sore throat?
(S12) What are the late complications of streptococcal sore throat?
(S14) What is the clinical picture of diphtheria?
(S16) Epidemiology of diphtheria?
Rare, but increased in certain parts of the world eg Russia
(S16) Vaccine for diphtheria?
Made from a cell-free purified toxin extracted from a strain of C. diphtheriae
(S16) Treatment for diphtheria?
(S18) Organism causing oral thrush?
(S18) Clinical picture of oral thrush?
White patches on red, raw mucous membranes in throat/mouth
(S18) Treatment of oral thrush?
(S21) What is acute otitis media?
(S23) What most often causes infections of the middle ear?
(S23) How are middle ear infection organism diagnosed?
Swab of pus if eardrum perforates – otherwise samples can’t be obtained
(S24) How should infections of the middle ear be treated?
(S26) What is acute sinusitis?
(S27) How are organisms causing acute sinusitis diagnosed?
(S27) Treatment for acute sinusitis?
(S29) What is otitis externa?
Inflammation of the outer ear canal
(S29) What is the clinical picture of otitis externa?
(S30) Bacterial causes of otitis externa?
(S31) Fungal causes of otitis externa?
(S32) Management of otitis externa?
(S35) What is the typical presentation of infectious mononucleosis infection?
(S35) What is the classic triad of symptoms of infectious mononucleosis?
(S36) What are the rarer symptoms of infectious mononucleosis?
(S41) Prognosis and complications associated with infectious mononucleosis?
(S41) Typical clinical course associated with infectious mononucleosis?
(S41) Treatment of complications associated with infectious mononucleosis?
(S42) Cause of infectious mononucleosis?
(S42) Phases of EBV infection?
(S43) Treatment of infectious mononucleosis?
(S44) How is the dx of infectious mononucleosis confirmed?
(S45) Which other infections may present in a similar way as infectious mononucleosis?
(S49) What is primary gingivostomatitis?
(S49) Treatment of HSV1 Primary gingivostomatitis?
(S52) What is a cold sore?
(S52) Cold sore treatment?
(S53) Natural history of cold sores/HSV1?
(S54) Which profession most often gets herpetic whitlow?
(S55) How is the diagnosis of HSV confirmed?
Swab of lesion in virus transport medium - detection of viral DNA by PCR
(S57) What is herpangina?
(S58) What is hand, foot, and mouth disease?
Ring of lymphoid aggregation in the subepithelial layer of oropharynx and nasopharynx
Viral – EBV, rhinovirus, influenza, parainfluenza, enterovirus, adenovirus
No – core and surface species do not always correlate
Aspiration and antibiotics
Infectious mononucleosis (Mono)
Diagnostic generalised macular rash
History, Otoscopy, Tuning fork tests, Audiometry, Tympanometry
(S8) How can neonate suckle and breathe at the same time?
Larynx is higher up
(S11) Ddx of airway obstruction?
(S12) Signs and Symptoms of airway obstruction?
(S12) What is stridor?
High pitched harsh noise due to turbulent airflow resulting from airway obstructions
(S12) What is stertor?
Low pitched sonorous sound arising from nasopharyngeal airway
(S23) Triad of initial assessment/first glance in suspected airway obstruction?
(S24) Chain of events leading to cardiac arrest in airway obstruction?
(S27) Anaesthesiology for airway endoscopy?
(S27) Pharmacotherapy for airway endoscopy?
(S30) When should tracheostomy be used?
Should be avoided at all possibilities
Referred pain – Toothache, Tonsil pain, Tumour of pharynx/larynx
(S3) Key history in nasal trauma?
(S4) Key examination findings in nasal trauma?
(S6) Diagnosis and management of nasal fracture?
(S8) Complications associated with nasal trauma?
(S9) Injuries associated with ear trauma?
(S11) Treatment/management of sub-perichondrial haematoma?
(S13) Management of lacerations to ear?
(S15) Presentations associated with temporal bone fracture?
(S17) Classification of temporal bone fractures?
(S18) Most common temporal bone fracture?
80% longitudinal – from lateral blows
(S18) Presentation of longitudinal temporal bone fracture?
(S19) Presentation of transverse temporal bone fracture?
(S20) Types of hearing loss?
(S26) Causes of conductive hearing loss?
(S26) Causes of sensorineural hearing loss?
(S27) Management of hearing loss following trauma?
(S30) Structures in zone 1 of neck trauma?
(S31) Structures in zone 2 of neck trauma?
(S32) Structures in zone 3 of neck trauma?
(S33) Key elements of history if neck trauma?
(S34) Examination in case of neck trauma?
A – airway (stridor, hoarseness)
B – breathing (RR, accessory muscles)
C – circulation (BP, HR, palpable pulse)
D – disability
E – full exposure
(S35) Secondary survey when assessing neck trauma?
(S36) Investigations if neck trauma?
(S37) Management of neck injury?
(S41) Imaging in case of suspected maxillary fracture?
(S43) What is the weak point of the orbit?
(S44) Examination presentation of orbital fracture?
(S46) Management of blowout fracture?
(S6) Key pharmacological treatments for stuffy nose?
(S7) Key nasal symptoms?
(S9) Elements of examination for stuffy nose?
(S14) Causes of rhinitis?
(S17) What are the two broad categories of allergic rhinitis in terms of presentation?
(S24) With which condition are nasal polyps often associated?
(S24) Treatment for nasal polyps?
(S29) Presentation of acute infective rhinosinusitis?
(S29) Management of acute infective rhinosinusitis?
(S3) What is the most common presentation to primary care for those over the age of 74?
(S5) Aetiological considerations for vertigo differentials?
(S6) 3 components of normal balance physiology?
(S7) How do the components of the vestibular system relate to balance?
(S8) Role of cerebellum in balance?
(S9) Key history if presenting with dizziness?
(S10) Examination of dizzy patient?
(S11) Common causes of dizziness?
(S12) Specific causes of dizziness?
(S13) Presentation of Ménière's Disease?
(S15) Management of menieres disease?
(S15) Preventative management of menieres disease?
(S17) What is the most common cause of vertigo on looking up?
(S17) What is Vertebrobasilar insufficiency – VBI – also known as?
(S17) How is VBI differentiated from BPPV?
(S18) Triggers for vertigo associated with BPPV?
(S19) Clinical type of vertigo associated with BPPV?
(S19) Aetiology associated with BPPV?
(S20) Treatment for BPPV?
(S21) How is the Dix-Hallpike test performed?
(S32) Presentation of vestibular neuronitis?
(S32) Aetiology of vestibular neuronitis?
(S33) Presentation of labyrinthitis?
(S33) Aetiology of labyrinthitis?
(S34) Management of neuronitis/labyrinthitis?
(S35) How does migraine presentation relate to vertigo?
From which tissue type do spindle cell sarcomas arise?
Which type of neoplasm is associated with verocay bodies?
Tissue type of external canal?
Epidermis + sebaceous and ceruminous glands
Tissue type of middle ear?
Columnar lined mucosa
With what is Schneiderian epithelium associated?
Tissue type lining throat?
Depends upon site – respiratory and squamous epithelium
What kind of gland is a salivary gland?
What are the key histological features of salivary glands?
What is otitis media?
Inflammation of the middle ear
What are the most common causes of otitis media?
If otitis media presents chronically, what is the most likely bacterial cause?
What is the pathogenesis of cholesteatoma?
Chronic otitis media and perforated tympanic membrane
What is cholesteatoma?
What is the most common type of cerebellopontine tumour?
Vestibular schwannoma (80-90%)
Which nerve is typically affected by schwannoma within the temporal bone?
Vestibular portion of vestibulocochlear nerve – VII = vestibular schwannoma
Does vestibular schwannoma tend to present unilaterally or bilaterally?
With which autosomal dominant condition would you expect to see bony defects, café au lait spots, axillary freckling, and Lisch nodules?
Neurofibromatosis type 1
Which genes is associated with neurofibromatosis type 1?
NF-1 gene; encodes neurofibromin @ 17q11.2
What is the genetic basis of neurofibromatosis type 2?
Which condition is associated with the following: gliomas, multiple meningiomas, café au lait spots, bilateral vestibular schwannoma?
Neurofibromatosis type 2
What is the typical age of presentation for nasal polyps?
Aetiology of nasal polyps?
Many – consider e.g. allergy, infection, asthma, aspirin sensitivity, nickel exposure
Most common pathogenesis of rhinitis and sinusitis?
What is Wegner’s granulomatosis?
Typical presentation of Wegner’s granulomatosis?
Which immunological results are associated with Wegner’s granulomatosis?
Which environmental exposures are highly associated with nasopharyngeal carcinoma?
How does Epstein Barr infection relate to nasopharyngeal cancer?
What induces laryngeal polyps?
Reactive change in laryngeal mucosa secondary to vocal abuse, infection and smoking. Occ. in hypothyroidism.
Difference between laryngeal nodules and polyps?
What is a contact ulcer?
When do squamous papilloma/papillomatosis incidence rates peak?
What are the two key categories of paraganglioma (neuroendocrine)?
With which autosomal dominant condition are paragangliomas associated?
Which environmental factors are most commonly implicated in SCCs of the head and neck?
Why is HPV associated with SCC?
Produces proteins E6 and E7 which disrupt p53 and RB pathways respectively, leading to cellular immortality
Grading of SCC of larynx?
What does sialithosis refer to?
Salivary gland stones
Which infection is is paramyxovirus associated with?
Which salivary gland is the most common site for tumours?
How does normal size of salivary gland relate to prognosis in malignancies?
Smaller glands tend to be associated with greater malignancy
What should be first differential with a young patient presenting with painless salivary gland mass?
What is the most common tumour of salivary glands?
Typical patient presentation of pleomorphic adenoma?
What is the most likely tumour: Male, 65 years old, painless parotid mass, long history of smoking. Bilateral and multicentric.
What is the most common malignant tumour of salivary glands?
Typical presentation of adenoid cystic carcinoma?
Why is adenoid cycstic carcinoma associated with pain?
Frequent perineural invasion – pain +/- loss of function
Prognosis of adenoid cycstic carcinoma?
35% 5 year survival
(S5) What are the three functional categories of ear anatomy?
(S6) Which frequencies can a human perceive as sound?
(S8) How and why does the middle ear act as an amplifier?
(S9) Why is the eustachian tube and how does it relate to common presentations?
(S16) What is the function of the inner ear hair cells?
(S18) Which Brodman areas are the central auditory pathways most associated?
41/42 – Superior temporal gyrus
(S24) What are the key vestibular end organs?
(S25) What are the otolith organs?
(S26) What causes BPPV?
(S13) What is the first investigation of dysphagia?
Direct inspection with endoscopy
(S13) When is Ba swallow indicated in the investigation of dysphagia?
(S13) Next investigation If malignancy is discovered on upper endoscopy?
Tumour staging with either CT or MRI
(S13) How do speech and language therapists decide whether post-laryngectomy patients can safely drink fluids?
(S14) If a Ba swallow is indicated but there is concern of oesophageal perforation, what can be used instead?
Water soluble iodine-based liquid
(S17) When are USS’s typically indicated in ENT?
(S18) First line imaging investigation of a neck lump?
(S18) Which questions should be answered when initially imaging a neck lump?
(S19) When do FNAs tend to be performed for neck lumps?
(S20) Key lymph node morphology on USS?
(S26) What is the diagnosis in the majority of thyroid masses?
Most are benign - hyperplastic nodules account for about 80% of thyroid lumps
(S30) Which key salivary glands are imaged when investigating pathology?
(S31) Main types of benign salivary gland tumour?
(S31) Main types of malignant salivary gland tumour?
(S31) Which inflammatory conditions are especially associated with salivary gland involvement?
(S31) What is sialectasis?
(S32) How does the parotid gland appear on USS?
(S37) When is CT used in ENT?
(S60) In ENT surgery, what does FESS stand for?
Functional Endoscopic Sinus Surgery
(S63) Which imaging modalities tend to be used to investigate hearing loss?
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