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Which of the following properties or processes do we associate with living things?
all of the above
Which of the following is not a theme that unifies biology?
Which of the following sequences represents the hierarchy of biological organization from the least to the most complex level?
molecule, cell, organ system, population, ecosystem, biosphere
4) A localized group of organisms that belong to the same species is called a
5) Which of the following is a false statement regarding DNA?
D) All forms of life are composed of cells that have a membrane-enclosed nucleus.
) In terms of the hierarchical organization of life, a bacterium is at the __________ level of organization, whereas a human is at the __________ level of organization.
A) single-celled organism; multicellular organism
Which of these is a correct representation of the hierarchy of biological organization from least to most complex?
C) molecule, intestinal cell organelle, intestinal cell, intestinal tissue, digestive system, organism
Organisms interact with their environments, exchanging matter and energy. For example, plant chloroplasts convert the energy of sunlight into
the potential energy of chemical bonds.
9) The main source of energy for producers in an ecosystem is
A) light energy.
10) The dynamics of any ecosystem include the following major processes:
E) the flow of energy from sunlight to producers and then to consumers, and the recycling of chemical nutrients
11) For most ecosystems __________ is (are) the ultimate source of energy, and energy leaves the ecosystem in the form of __________.
A) sunlight; heat
12) The illustration above represents
B) a map of a network of protein interactions within a eukaryotic cell.
The lowest level of biological organization that can perform all the activities required for life is the
B) cell–for example, a skin cell.
14) Which of the following is a false statement regarding deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)?
E) DNA is an enzyme that puts together amino acids to make a protein.
15) Which of the following types of cells utilize deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) as their genetic material but do not have their DNA encased within a nuclear envelope?
16) Which of the following statements concerning prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells is not correct?
B) Prokaryotic cells contain small membrane-enclosed organelles.
17) Which of the following is reflective of the phrase "the whole is greater than the sum of its parts"?
B) emergent properties
18) In order to understand the chemical basis of inheritance, one must understand the molecular structure of DNA. This is an example of the application of __________ to the study of biology.
19) A type of protein critical to all cells is organic catalysts called
20) Once labor begins in childbirth, contractions increase in intensity and frequency until delivery. The increasing labor contractions of childbirth are an example of
B) positive feedback.
21) When blood glucose level rises, the pancreas secretes insulin, and as a result blood glucose level declines. When blood glucose level is low, the pancreas secretes glucagon, and as a result blood glucose level rises. Such regulation of blood glucose level is the result of
C) negative feedback.
22) Life is diverse. How many species are estimated to be presently on the earth?
23) Which branch of biology is concerned with the naming and classifying of organisms?
24) Prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells generally have which of the following features in common?
25) Prokaryotes are classified as belonging to two different domains. What are the domains?
E) Bacteria and Archaea
26) Species that are in the same __________ are more closely related than species that are only in the same __________.
B) family; order
27) Two species that belong to the same genus must also belong to the same
E) all of the above
28) Which of these is reflective of the hierarchical organization of life from most to least inclusive?
C) kingdom, phylum, class, order, family, genus, species
29) A water sample from a hot thermal vent contained a single-celled organism that had a cell wall but lacked a nucleus. What is its most likely classification?
30) A filamentous organism has been isolated from decomposing organic matter. This organism has a cell wall but no chloroplasts. How would you classify this organism?
E) domain Eukarya, kingdom Fungi
31) Which of these provides evidence of the common ancestry of all life?
B) the universality of the genetic code
32) Which of the following is (are) true of natural selection?
E) A, B, and C
33) Charles Darwin proposed a mechanism for descent with modification which stated that organisms of a particular species are adapted to their environment when they possess
D) inheritable traits that enhance their survival and reproductive success in the local environment.
34) All of the following statements are part of Charles Darwin's concept of natural selection except
C) Characteristics of organisms are inherited as genes on chromosomes.
35) Which of these individuals is most likely to be successful in an evolutionary sense?
B) an organism that dies after 5 days of life but leaves 10 offspring, all of whom survive to reproduce
36) In a hypothetical world, every 50 years people over 6 feet tall are eliminated from the population. Based on your knowledge of natural selection, you would predict that the average
B) gradually decline.
37) Through time, the lineage that led to modern whales shows a change from four-limbed land animals to aquatic animals with two limbs that function as flippers. This change is best explained by
D) natural selection.
38) Evolution is biology's core theme that ties together all the other themes. This is because evolution explains
E) all of the above
39) The method of scientific inquiry that describes natural structures and processes as accurately as possible through careful observation and the analysis of data is known as
B) discovery science.
40) Collecting data based on observation is an example of __________; analyzing this data to reach a conclusion is an example of __________ reasoning.
C) discovery science; inductive
41) What is a hypothesis?
B) a tentative explanation that can be tested and is falsifiable
42) Which of these is based on a deduction?
E) If I turn the key in the ignition while stepping on the gas pedal, then my car will start.
43) When applying the process of science, which of these is tested?
D) a prediction
44) A controlled experiment is one in which
C) there are at least two groups, one of which does not receive the experimental treatment.
45) Why is it important that an experiment include a control group?
E) Without a control group, there is no basis for knowing if a particular result is due to the variable being tested or to some other factor.
46) The application of scientific knowledge for some specific purpose is known as
47) A common form of regulation in which accumulation of an end product of a process slows that process is called positive feedback.
48) Charles Darwin presented verifiable evidence that supported the view that life can arise by spontaneous generation.
49) Recent evidence points to the conclusion that the ancestral finches of the Galapagos originated in the islands of the Caribbean.
50) Discovery science uses inductive reasoning to derive generalizations from a large number of specific observations.
51) In hypothesis-based science, deductive reasoning is used to predict a result that would be found if a particular hypothesis is correct.
52) Discovery science has contributed much to our understanding of nature without most of the steps of the so-called scientific method.
53) Science requires that hypothesis be testable and falsifiable and that observations be repeatable.
54) A theory in science is equivalent in scope to a well-structured hypothesis.
55) The goal of systems biology is to construct models to predict the emergent properties of cells.
1) All the organisms on your campus make up
B) a community.
2) Which of the following is a correct sequence of levels in life's hierarchy, proceeding downward from an individual animal?
D) nervous system, brain, nervous tissue, nerve cell
3) Which of the following is not an observation or inference on which Darwin's theory of natural selection is based?
A) Poorly adapted individuals never produce offspring.
4) Systems biology is mainly an attempt to
C) construct models of the behavior of entire biological systems.
5) Protists and bacteria are grouped into different domains because
C) protists have a membrane-bounded nucleus, which bacterial cells lack.
6) Which of the following best demonstrates the unity among all organisms?
C) the structure and function of DNA
7) Which of the following is an example of qualitative data?
C) The fish swam in a zig-zag motion.
8) Which of the following best describes the logic of hypothesis-based science?
D) If my hypothesis is correct, I can expect certain test results.
9) A controlled experiment is one that
B) may include experimental groups and control groups tested in parallel.
10) Which of the following statements best distinguishes hypotheses from theories in science?
C) Hypotheses usually are relatively narrow in scope; theories have broad explanatory power.
1) For this pair of items, choose the option that best describes their relationship. (A) The number of alpha glucose 1-4 linkages in cellulose (B) The number of alpha glucose 1-4 linkages in starch
B) Item (A) is less than item (B).
2) For this pair of items, choose the option that best describes their relationship. (A) The probability of finding chitin in fungal cell walls (B) The probability of finding chitin in arthropod exoskeletons
C) Item (A) is exactly or very approximately equal to item (B).
3) For this pair of items, choose the option that best describes their relationship. (A) The number of cis double bonds in saturated fatty acids (B) The number of cis double bonds in unsaturated fatty acids
B) Item (A) is less than item (B).
4) For this pair of items, choose the option that best describes their relationship. (A) The probability that amino acids with nonpolar side chains are hydrophobic.
1(B) The probability that amino acids with side chains containing a carboxyl group are hydrophobic.
A) Item (A) is greater than item (B).
For this pair of items, choose the option that best describes their relationship. (A) The number of purines in the DNA strand 5'-AAGAGGAGAAA-3' (B) The number of pyrimidines in the DNA strand 5'-AAGAGGAGAAA-3'
A) Item (A) is greater than item (B).
6) Which of the following is not a polymer?
7) What is the chemical mechanism by which cells make polymers from monomers?
C) dehydration reactions
8) How many molecules of water are needed to completely hydrolyze a polymer that is 11 monomers long?
9) Which of the following best summarizes the relationship between dehydration reactions and hydrolysis?
E) A and B are correct.
10) Which of the following polymers contain nitrogen?
11) The molecular formula for glucose is C6H12O6. What would be the molecular formula for a molecule made by linking three glucose molecules together by dehydration reactions?
12) The enzyme amylase can break glycosidic linkages between glucose monomers only if the monomers are the ␣ form. Which of the following could amylase break down?
13) On food packages, to what does the term "insoluble fiber" refer?
14) A molecule with the chemical formula C6H12O6 is probably a
E) A, B, and C..
15) If 2 molecules of the general type shown in Figure 5.1 were linked together, carbon 1 of one molecule to carbon 4 of the other, the single molecule that would result would be
16) Which of the following descriptors is true of the molecule shown in Figure 5.1?
E) A and C only
17) Lactose, a sugar in milk, is composed of one glucose molecule joined by a glycosidic linkage to one galactose molecule. How is lactose classified?
D) as a disaccharide
18) All of the following are polysaccharides except
19) Which of the following is true of both starch and cellulose?
A) They are both polymers of glucose.
20) Which of the following is true of cellulose?
D) It is a major structural component of plant cell walls.
21) Humans can digest starch but not cellulose because
C) humans have enzymes that can hydrolyze the alpha (␣) glycosidic linkages of starch but not the beta (␣) glycosidic linkages of cellulose.
22) All of the following statements concerning saturated fats are true except
B) They have multiple double bonds in the carbon chains of their fatty acids.
23) A molecule with the formula C18H36O2 is probably a
B) fatty acid.
24) Which of the following statements is false for the class of biological molecules known as lipids?
A) They are soluble in water.
25) What is a triacylglycerol?
B) a lipid made with three fatty acids and glycerol
26) Which of the following is true regarding saturated fatty acids?
C) They are the principal molecules in lard and butter.
27) Which of the following statements is true regarding the molecule illustrated in Figure 5.2?
D) A and B only
28) Which of the following statements is true regarding the molecule illustrated in Figure 5.3?
C) Molecules of this type are usually liquid at room temperature.
29) The molecule shown in Figure 5.3 is a
E) unsaturated fatty acid.
30) Large organic molecules are usually assembled by polymerization of a few kinds of simple subunits. Which of the following is an exception to this statement?
A) a steroid
31) The hydrogenation of vegetable oil results in which of the following?
E) A, B, and C
32) What is the structure shown in Figure 5.4?
C) steroid molecule
33) Why are human sex hormones considered to be lipids?
B) They are steroids, which are not soluble in water.
34) All of the following contain amino acids except
35) The bonding of two amino acid molecules to form a larger molecule requires
A) the release of a water molecule.
36) There are 20 different amino acids. What makes one amino acid different from another?
C) different side chains (R groups) attached to an alpha (␣) carbon
37) Which of the following statements is/are true regarding the chemical reaction illustrated in Figure 5.5?
B) It results in a peptide bond.
38) The bonding of two amino acid molecules to form a larger molecule requires which of the following?
A) removal of a water molecule
39) Polysaccharides, lipids, and proteins are similar in that they
B) are synthesized from monomers by dehydration reactions.
40) Dehydration reactions are used in forming which of the following compounds?
E) A, B, and C
41) Upon chemical analysis, a particular polypeptide was found to contain 100 amino acids. How many peptide bonds are present in this protein?
42) At which bond would water need to be added to achieve hydrolysis of the peptide, back to its component amino acid?
43) Which bond is a peptide bond?
44) Which bond is closest to the N-terminus of the molecule?
45) Which bond is closest to the carboxyl end of the molecule?
46) How many different kinds of polypeptides, each composed of 12 amino acids, could be synthesized using the 20 common amino acids?
47) Which bonds are created during the formation of the primary structure of a protein?
A) peptide bonds
48) What maintains the secondary structure of a protein?
B) hydrogen bonds
49) Which type of interaction stabilizes the alpha (␣) helix and the beta (␣) pleated sheet structures of proteins?
D) hydrogen bonds
50) The ␣ helix and the ␣ pleated sheet are both common polypeptide forms found in which level of protein structure?
51) The structure depicted in Figure 5.7 shows the
D) ␣ helix secondary structure of a polypeptide.
52) Figure 5.7 best illustrates the
A) secondary structure of a polypeptide.
53) The tertiary structure of a protein is the
C) unique three-dimensional shape of the fully folded polypeptide.
54) A strong covalent bond between amino acids that functions in maintaining a polypeptide's specific three-dimensional shape is a (an)
D) disulfide bond.
55) At which level of protein structure are interactions between the side chains (R groups) most important?
56) The R group or side chain of the amino acid serine is —CH2—OH. The R group or side chain of the amino acid alanine is —CH3. Where would you expect to find these amino acids in
a globular protein in aqueous solution?
B) Alanine would be in the interior, and serine would be on the exterior of the globular protein.
57) Misfolding of polypeptides is a serious problem in cells. Which of the following diseases are associated with an accumulation of misfolded proteins?
D) A and B only
58) What would be an unexpected consequence of changing one amino acid in a protein consisting of 325 amino acids?
E) A, B, and C are correct.
59) Altering which of the following levels of structural organization could change the function of a protein?
E) all of the above
60) What method did Frederick Sanger use to elucidate the structure of insulin?
C) analysis of amino acid sequence of small fragments
61) Roger Kornberg used this method for elucidating the structure of RNA polymerase.
A) X-ray crystallography
62) Which of the following uses the amino acid sequences of polypeptides to predict a protein's three-dimensional structure?
63) The function of each protein is a consequence of its specific shape. What is the term used for a change in a protein's three-dimensional shape or conformation due to disruption of hydrogen bonds, disulfide bridges, or ionic bonds?
64) What is the term used for a protein molecule that assists in the proper folding of other proteins?
65) DNAase is an enzyme that catalyzes the hydrolysis of the covalent bonds that join nucleotides together. What would first happen to DNA molecules treated with DNAase?
B) The phosphodiester bonds between deoxyribose sugars would be broken.
66) Which of the following statements about the 5' end of a polynucleotide strand of DNA is correct?
B) The 5' end has a phosphate group attached to the number 5 carbon of ribose.
67) Of the following functions, the major purpose of RNA is to
B) function in the synthesis of protein.
68) Which of the following best describes the flow of information in eukaryotic cells?
A) DNA RNA proteins
69) Which of the following descriptions best fits the class of molecules known as nucleotides?
C) a nitrogenous base, a phosphate group, and a pentose sugar
70) Which of the following are nitrogenous bases of the pyrimidine type?
B) cytosine and uracil
71) Which of the following are nitrogenous bases of the purine type?
B) guanine and adenine
72) If a DNA sample were composed of 10% thymine, what would be the percentage of guanine?
73) A double-stranded DNA molecule contains a total of 120 purines and 120 pyrimidines. This
B) 120 thymine and 120 adenine molecules.
74) The difference between the sugar in DNA and the sugar in RNA is that the sugar in DNA
E) contains one less oxygen atom.
75) Which of the following statements best summarizes the structural differences between DNA and RNA?
C) DNA nucleotides contain a different sugar than RNA nucleotides.
76) In the double helix structure of nucleic acids, cytosine hydrogen bonds to
77) If one strand of a DNA molecule has the sequence of bases 5'ATTGCA3', the other complementary strand would have the sequence
78) What is the structural feature that allows DNA to replicate?
B) complementary pairing of the nitrogenous bases
A new organism is discovered in the forests of Costa Rica. Scientists there determine that the polypeptide sequence of hemoglobin from the new organism has 72 amino acid differences from humans, 65 differences from a gibbon, 49 differences from a rat, and 5 differences from a frog.
B) is more closely related to frogs than to humans.
80) Which of the following is an example of hydrolysis?
D) the reaction of a fat, forming glycerol and fatty acids with the utilization of water
81) The element nitrogen is present in all of the following except
82) Which of the following is a diverse group of hydrophobic molecules?
83) Which of the following store and transmit hereditary information?
D) nucleic acids
84) Enzymes are
85) Which molecule has hydrophilic and hydrophobic properties and would be found in plasma membranes?
86) Which of the following combinations could be linked together to form a nucleotide?
D) 11, 12, and 13
87) Which of the following molecules contain(s) an aldehyde type of carbonyl functional group?
E) 1 and 4
88) Which molecule is glycerol?
89) Which molecule is a saturated fatty acid?
90) Which of the following molecules is a purine type of nitrogenous base?
91) Which of the following molecules act as building blocks (monomers) of polypeptides?
B) 2, 7, and 8
92) Which of the following molecules is an amino acid with a hydrophobic R group or side chain?
93) Which of the following molecules could be joined together by a peptide bond as a result of a dehydration reaction?
C) 7 and 8
94) A fat (or triacylglycerol) would be formed as a result of a dehydration reaction between
B) three molecules of 9 and one molecule of 10.
95) Which of the following molecules could be joined together by a phosphodiester type of covalent bond?
D) 11 and 12
96) Which of the following molecules is the pentose sugar found in RNA?
97) Which of the following molecules contains a glycosidic linkage type of covalent bond?
98) Which of the following molecules has (have) a functional group that frequently is involved in maintaining the tertiary structure of a protein?
99) Which of the following molecules consists of a hydrophilic "head" region and a hydrophobic "tail" region?
100) Which of the following statements is false?
E) 14 and 15 could be joined together to form a polypeptide.
1) Which term includes all others in the list?
2) The molecular formula for glucose is C6H12O6. What would be the molecular formula for a polymer made by linking ten glucose molecules together by dehydration reactions?
3) The enzyme amylase can break glycosidic linkages between glucose monomers only if the monomers are the ␣ form. Which of the following could amylase break down?
A) glycogen, starch, and amylopectin
4) Which of the following statements concerning unsaturated fats is true?
B) They have double bonds in the carbon chains of their fatty acids.
5) The structural level of a protein least affected by a disruption in hydrogen bonding is the
A) primary level.
6) Which of the following pairs of base sequences could form a short stretch of a normal double helix of DNA?
D) 5'-A-T-G-C-3' with 5'-G-C-A-T-3'
7) Enzymes that break down DNA catalyze the hydrolysis of the covalent bonds that join nucleotides together. What would happen to DNA molecules treated with these enzymes?
B) The phosphodiester linkages between deoxyribose sugars would be broken.
8) Construct a table that organizes the following terms, and label the columns and rows.
9) Draw the polynucleotide strand in Figure 5.27a from your textbook, and label the bases G, T, C, and T, starting from the 5' end. Now, draw the complementary strand of the double helix, using the same symbols for phosphates (circles), sugars (pentagons), and bas
1) When biologists wish to study the internal ultrastructure of cells, they most likely would use
C) a transmission electronic microscope.
2) The advantage of light microscopy over electron microscopy is that
C) light microscopy allows one to view dynamic processes in living cells.
3) A primary objective of cell fractionation is to
D) separate the major organelles so that their particular functions can be determined.
4) In the fractionation of homogenized cells using centrifugation, the primary factor that determines whether a specific cellular component ends up in the supernatant or the pellet is
B) the size and weight of the component.
5) Which of the following correctly lists the order in which cellular components will be found in the pellet when homogenized cells are treated with increasingly rapid spins in a centrifuge?
E) nucleus, mitochondria, ribosomes
6) Quantum dots are small (15—30 nm diameter), bright particles visible using light microscopy. If the dots can be specifically bound to individual proteins on a plasma membrane of a cell, which of the following correctly describes the advantage of using quantum dots in examining proteins?
D) The dots permit the motion of the proteins to be determined more precisely.
7) If a modern electron microscope (TEM) can resolve biological images to the nanometer level, as opposed to the best light microscope, this is due to which of the following?
C) Electron beams have much shorter wavelengths than visible light.
The cells in question can be distinguished by external shape, size, and 3-dimensional characteristics. Which would be the optimum method for her study?
E) scanning electron microscopy
A newspaper ad for a local toy store indicates that a very inexpensive microscope available for a small child is able to magnify specimens nearly as much as the much more costly microscope available in your college lab. What is the primary reason for the price difference?
C) The toy microscope magnifies a good deal, but has low resolution and therefore poor quality images.
10) Why is it important to know what microscopy method was used to prepare the images you wish to study?
B) so that you can make a judgment about the likelihood of artifacts having been introduced in the preparation
11) All of the following are part of a prokaryotic cell except
E) an endoplasmic reticulum.
12) The volume enclosed by the plasma membrane of plant cells is often much larger than the corresponding volume in animal cells. The most reasonable explanation for this observation is that
C) plant cells contain a large vacuole that reduces the volume of the cytoplasm.
13) A mycoplasma is an organism with a diameter between 0.1 and 1.0 μm. What does its size tell you about how it might be classified?
E) It could be a very small bacterium.
14) Which of the following is a major cause of the size limits for certain types of cells?
D) the need for a surface area of sufficient area to allow the cell's function
15) Large numbers of ribosomes are present in cells that specialize in producing which of the following molecules?
16) The nuclear lamina is an array of filaments on the inner side of the nuclear membrane. If a method were found that could cause the lamina to fall into disarray, what would you expect to be the most likely consequence?
C) a change in the shape of the nucleus
17) Recent evidence shows that individual chromosomes occupy fairly defined territories within the nucleus. Given the structure and location of the following parts of the nucleus, which would be more probably involved in chromosome location?
E) the nuclear matrix
18) Under which of the following conditions would you expect to find a cell with a predominance of free ribosomes?
B) a cell that is producing cytoplasmic enzymes
19) Which type of organelle is primarily involved in the synthesis of oils, phospholipids, and steroids?
C) smooth endoplasmic reticulum
20) Which structure is the site of the synthesis of proteins that may be exported from the cell?
A) rough ER
The Golgi apparatus has a polarity or sidedness to its structure and function. Which of the following statements correctly describes this polarity?
E) All of the above correctly describe polar characteristics of the Golgi function.
22) The fact that the outer membrane of the nuclear envelope has bound ribosomes allows one to most reliably conclude that
A) at least some of the proteins that function in the nuclear envelope are made by the ribosomes on the nuclear envelope.
23) The difference in lipid and protein composition between the membranes of the endomembrane system is largely determined by
C) the function of the Golgi apparatus in sorting membrane components.
24) In animal cells, hydrolytic enzymes are packaged to prevent general destruction of cellular components. Which of the following organelles functions in this compartmentalization?
25) Which of the following statements correctly describes some aspect of protein disposal from prokaryotic cells?
C) Proteins that are excreted by prokaryotes are synthesized on ribosomes that are bound to the cytoplasmic surface of the plasma membrane.
26) Tay-Sachs disease is a human genetic abnormality that results in cells accumulating and becoming clogged with very large and complex lipids. Which cellular organelle must be
C) the lysosome
27) The liver is involved in detoxification of many poisons and drugs. Which of the following structures is primarily involved in this process and therefore abundant in liver cells?
B) smooth ER
28) Which of the following produces and modifies polysaccharides that will be secreted?
D) Golgi apparatus
29) Which of the following contains hydrolytic enzymes?
30) Which of the following is a compartment that often takes up much of the volume of a plant cell?
31) Which is one of the main energy transformers of cells?
32) Which of the following contains its own DNA and ribosomes?
33) Which of the following contains enzymes that transfer hydrogen from various substrates to oxygen?
34) Grana, thylakoids, and stroma are all components found in
35) Organelles other than the nucleus that contain DNA include
D) B and C only
The chemical reactions involved in respiration are virtually identical between prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. In eukaryotic cells, ATP is synthesized primarily on the inner membrane of the mitochondria. Where are the corresponding reactions likely to occur in prokaryotic respiration?
D) on the inner plasma membrane
Organelles in one of the heavier fractions could produce ATP in the light, while organelles in the lighter fraction could produce ATP in the dark. The heavier and lighter fractions are most likely to contain, respectively,
D) chloroplasts and mitochondria.
38) Which of the following are capable of converting light energy to chemical energy?
39) A cell has the following molecules and structures: enzymes, DNA, ribosomes, plasma membrane, and mitochondria. It could be a cell from
D) a plant or an animal.
40) The mitochondrion, like the nucleus, has two or more membrane layers. How is the innermost of these layers different from that of the nucleus?
A) The inner mitochondrial membrane is highly folded.
41) Why isn't the mitochondrion classified as part of the endomembrane system?
B) Its structure is not derived from the ER.
The peroxisome gets its name from its interaction with hydrogen peroxide. If a liver cell is detoxifying alcohol and some other poisons, it does so by removal of hydrogen from the molecules. What, then, do the enzymes of the peroxisome do?
D) transfer the hydrogens to oxygen molecules
43) How does the cell multiply its peroxisomes?
D) They split in two after they are too large.
44) Motor proteins provide for molecular motion in cells by interacting with what types of cellular structures?
45) Cells can be described as having a cytoskeleton of internal structures that contribute to the shape, organization, and movement of the cell. Which of the following are part of the cytoskeleton?
A) the nuclear envelope
46) Of the following, which cell structure would most likely be visible with a light microscope that has been manufactured to the maximum resolving power possible?
47) Which of the following contain the 9 + 2 arrangement of microtubules?
D) A and C only
48) Tubulin is a dimer, made up of 2 slightly different polypeptides, alpha and beta. Given the structure above, what is the most likely consequence to the structure of the microtubule?
B) One end of a microtubule can grow or release dimers at a faster rate than the other.
49) The differences among the three categories of cytoskeletal elements would suggest that each of the following has specialized roles. Which of the following is a correct match?
E) microtubules and chromosome movement
50) Centrioles, cilia, flagella, and basal bodies have remarkably similar structural elements and arrangements. This leads us to which of the following as a probable hypothesis?
E) Natural selection for motility must select for microtubular arrays in circular patterns.
51) If an individual has abnormal microtubules, due to a hereditary condition, in which organs or tissues would you expect dysfunction?
D) sperm, larynx, and trachea
52) Which of the following possesses a microtubular structure similar to a basal body?
53) Microfilaments are well known for their role in which of the following?
E) A, B, and C
54) Which of the following statements about the cytoskeleton is true?
C) Movement of cilia and flagella is the result of motor proteins causing microtubules to move relative to each other.
55) Cells require which of the following to form cilia or flagella?
D) A and B only
56) All of the following serve an important role in determining or maintaining the structure of plant cells. Which of the following are distinct from the others in their composition?
C) plant cell walls
57) Which of the following relationships between cell structures and their respective functions is correct?
B) chloroplasts: chief sites of cellular respiration
58) The cell walls of bacteria, fungi, and plant cells and the extracellular matrix of animal cells are all external to the plasma membrane. Which of the following is a characteristic of all of these extracellular structures?
D) They are constructed of materials that are largely synthesized in the cytoplasm and then transported out of the cell.
59) When a potassium ion (K+) moves from the soil into the vacuole of a cell on the surface of a root, it must pass through several cellular structures. Which of the following correctly describes the order in which these structures will be encountered by the ion?
C) primary cell wall plasma membrane cytoplasm tonoplast
60) A cell lacking the ability to make and secrete glycoproteins would most likely be deficient in its
D) B and C only
61) The extracellular matrix is thought to participate in the regulation of animal cell behavior by communicating information from the outside to the inside of the cell via which of the following?
62) Plasmodesmata in plant cells are most similar in function to which of the following structures in animal cells?
C) gap junctions
63) Ions can travel directly from the cytoplasm of one animal cell to the cytoplasm of an adjacent cell through
E) gap junctions.
64) Which of the following makes it necessary for animal cells, although they have no cell walls, to have intercellular junctions?
B) Large molecules, especially proteins, do not readily get through one, much less two adjacent cell membranes.
65) Recent evidence shows that the extracellular matrix can take part in regulating the expression of genes. A likely possibility for this might be which of the following?
A) Mechanical signals of the ECM can alter the cytoskeleton, which can alter intracellular signaling.
66) Of the following molecules of the ECM, which is capable of transmitting signals between the ECM and the cytoskeleton?
1) Which statement correctly characterizes bound ribosomes?
C) Bound ribosomes generally synthesize membrane proteins and secretory proteins.
2) Which structure is not part of the endomembrane system?
3) Cells of the pancreas will incorporate radioactively labeled amino acids into proteins. This "tagging" of newly synthesized proteins enables a researcher to track their location. In this case, we are tracking an enzyme secreted by pancreatic cells. What is its most likely pathway?
D) ER Golgi vesicles that fuse with plasma membrane
4) Which structure is common to plant and animal cells?
5) Which of the following is present in a prokaryotic cell?
6) Which cell would be best for studying lysosomes?
C) phagocytic white blood cell
7) Which structure-function pair is mismatched?
E) microtubule; muscle contraction
8) Cyanide binds with at least one molecule involved in producing ATP. If a cell is exposed to cyanide, most of the cyanide would be found within the
1) Who was/were the first to propose that cell membranes are phospholipid bilayers?
E) E. Gorter and F. Grendel
2) Who proposed that membranes are a phospholipid bilayer between two layers of hydrophilic proteins?
A) H. Davson and J. Danielli
3) Who proposed that the membrane is a mosaic of protein molecules bobbing in a fluid bilayer of phospholipids?
D) S. Singer and G. Nicolson
4) Which of the following types of molecules are the major structural components of the cell membrane?
C) phospholipids and proteins
Review Chapter 7 question 5-9
10) When biological membranes are frozen and then fractured, they tend to break along the middle of the bilayer. The best explanation for this is that
E) the hydrophobic interactions that hold the membrane together are weakest at this point.
11) The presence of cholesterol in the plasma membranes of some animals
A) enables the membrane to stay fluid more easily when cell temperature drops.
12) According to the fluid mosaic model of cell membranes, which of the following is a true statement about membrane phospholipids?
A) They can move laterally along the plane of the membrane.
13) Which of the following is one of the ways that the membranes of winter wheat are able to remain fluid when it is extremely cold?
A) by increasing the percentage of unsaturated phospholipids in the membrane
14) In order for a protein to be an integral membrane protein it would have to be which of the following?
15) When a membrane is freeze-fractured, the bilayer splits down the middle between the two layers of phospholipids. In an electron micrograph of a freeze-fractured membrane, the bumps seen on the fractured surface of the membrane are
D) integral proteins.
16) Which of the following is a reasonable explanation for why unsaturated fatty acids help keep any membrane more fluid at lower temperatures?
A) The double bonds form kinks in the fatty acid tails, forcing adjacent lipids to be further apart.
17) Which of the following is true of integral membrane proteins?
C) They are usually transmembrane proteins.
18) Of the following functions, which is most important for the glycoproteins and glycolipids of animal cell membranes?
E) a cell's ability to distinguish one type of neighboring cell from another
19) An animal cell lacking oligosaccharides on the external surface of its plasma membrane would likely be impaired in which function?
B) cell-cell recognition
20) In the years since the proposal of the fluid mosaic model of the cell membrane, which of the following observations has been added to the model?
D) The concentration of protein molecules is now known to be much higher.
21) Which of the following span the phospholipids bilayer, usually a number of times?
A) transmembrane proteins
22) Which of these are not embedded in the lipid bilayer at all?
C) peripheral proteins
23) Which of these are attached to the extracellular matrix?
24) Which of these often serve as receptors or cell recognition molecules on cell surfaces?
25) The formulation of a model for a structure or for a process serves which of the following purposes?
B) It functions as a testable hypothesis.
26) Cell membranes are asymmetrical. Which of the following is a most likely explanation?
C) Cell membrane proteins are determined as the membrane is being packaged in the ER and Golgi.
27) Which of the following is true of the evolution of cell membranes?
D) As populations of organisms evolve, different properties of their cell membranes are selected for or against.
28) Why are lipids and proteins free to move laterally in membranes?
C) Hydrophilic portions of the lipids are in the interior of the membrane.
29) What kinds of molecules pass through a cell membrane most easily?
B) small and hydrophobic
30) Which of the following is a characteristic feature of a carrier protein in a plasma membrane?
B) It exhibits a specificity for a particular type of molecule.
31) After a membrane freezes and then thaws, it often becomes leaky to solutes. The most reasonable explanation for this is that
D) the integrity of the lipid bilayer is broken when the membrane freezes.
32) Which of the following would likely move through the lipid bilayer of a plasma membrane most rapidly?
33) Which of the following statements is correct about diffusion?
C) It is a passive process in which molecules move from a region of higher concentration to a region of lower concentration.
34) Water passes quickly through cell membranes because
E) it moves through aquaporins in the membrane.
35) Chloride ion channels are membrane structures that include which of the following?
C) hydrophilic proteins
36) Which of the following would you expect to be a problem for someone with nonfunctional chloride channeling?
B) buildup of excessive secretions in organs such as lungs
37) If a young male child has cystic fibrosis, which of the following would affect his fertility?
D) incorrect concentrations of ions in semen
38) Initially, in terms of tonicity, the solution in side A with respect to that in side B is
39) After the system reaches equilibrium, what changes are observed?
C) The water level is higher in side A than in side B.
40) A patient has had a serious accident and lost a lot of blood. In an attempt to replenish body fluids, distilled water, equal to the volume of blood lost, is transferred directly into one of his veins. What will be the most probable result of this transfusion?
C) The patient's red blood cells will swell because the blood fluid is hypotonic compared to the cells.
41) Celery stalks that are immersed in fresh water for several hours become stiff and hard. Similar stalks left in a salt solution become limp and soft. From this we can deduce that the cells of the celery stalks are
C) hypertonic to fresh water but hypotonic to the salt solution.
cytoplasm has a concentration of 0.02 molar glucose is placed in a test tube of water containing 0.02 molar glucose. Assuming that glucose is not actively transported into the cell, which of the following terms describes the tonicity of the external solution relative to the cytoplasm of the cell?
You are working on a team that is designing a new drug. In order for this drug to work, it must enter the cytoplasm of specific target cells. Which of the following would be a factor that determines whether the molecule enters the cell?
D) similarity of the drug molecule to other molecules transported by the target cells
50) In which of the following would there be the greatest need for osmoregulation?
B) a terrestrial animal such as a snake
51) When a plant cell, such as one from a peony stem, is submerged in a very hypotonic solution, what is likely to occur?
E) the cell will become turgid
52) Which of the following membrane activities require energy from ATP hydrolysis?
C) Na+ ions moving out of the cell
53) What are the membrane structures that function in active transport?
E) integral proteins
Glucose diffuses slowly through artificial phospholipid bilayers. The cells lining the small intestine, however, rapidly move large quantities of glucose from the glucose-rich food into their glucose-poor cytoplasm
E) facilitated diffusion
55) What is the voltage across a membrane called?
C) membrane potential
In most cells, there are electrochemical gradients of many ions across the plasma membrane even though there are usually only one or two electrogenic pumps present in the membrane. The gradients of the other ions are most likely accounted for by
A) cotransport proteins.
57) The sodium-potassium pump is called an electrogenic pump because it
C) contributes to the membrane potential.
58) If a membrane protein in an animal cell is involved in the cotransport of glucose and sodium ions into the cell, which of the following is most likely true?
E) A substance that blocked sodium ions from binding to the cotransport protein would also block the transport of glucose.
59) The movement of potassium into an animal cell requires
C) an energy source such as ATP or a proton gradient.
60) Ions diffuse across membranes down their
D) electrochemical gradients.
61) What mechanisms do plants use to load sucrose produced by photosynthesis into specialized cells in the veins of leaves?
E) A, B, and C
62) The sodium-potassium pump in animal cells requires cytoplasmic ATP to pump ions across the plasma membrane. When the proteins of the pump are first synthesized in the rough ER, what side of the ER membrane will the ATP binding site be on?
A) It will be on the cytoplasmic side of the ER.
63) Proton pumps are used in various ways by members of every kingdom of organisms. What does this most probably mean?
D) Cells with proton pumps were maintained in each Kingdom by natural selection.
64) Several seriously epidemic viral diseases of earlier centuries were then incurable because they resulted in severe dehydration due to vomiting and diarrhea. Today they are usually not fatal because we have developed which of the following?
E) hydrating drinks that include high concentrations of salts and glucose
65) An organism with a cell wall would have the most difficulty doing which process?
66) White blood cells engulf bacteria through what process?
67) Familial hypercholesterolemia is characterized by which of the following?
A) defective LDL receptors on the cell membranes
68) The difference between pinocytosis and receptor-mediated endocytosis is that
A) pinocytosis brings only water into the cell, but receptor-mediated endocytosis brings in other molecules as well.
69) In receptor-mediated endocytosis, receptor molecules initially project to the outside of the cell. Where do they end up after endocytosis?
C) on the inside surface of the vesicle
1) In what way do the membranes of a eukaryotic cell vary?
B) Certain proteins are unique to each membrane.
2) According to the fluid mosaic model of membrane structure, proteins of the membrane are mostly
C) embedded in a lipid bilayer.
3) Which of the following factors would tend to increase membrane fluidity?
A) a greater proportion of unsaturated phospholipids
4) Which of the following processes includes all others?
E) transport of an ion down its electrochemical gradient
) Based on Figure 7.19 in your textbook, which of these experimental treatments would increase the rate of sucrose transport into the cell?
B) decreasing extracellular pH
review last question chapter 7
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