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When a drug is classified as a “legend drug,” this means that:
a. The drug may be sold directly to the consumer without a prescription.
b. It contains extensive information on the packet.
c. It is a controlled substance, regulated by law.
d. It is labeled with the caution, “Federal law prohibits dispensing without prescription.”
Abnormal reactivity that is based on genetic factors and may occur with the first exposure to a drug is known as:
a. Hypersensitivity reaction
b. Side effect
c. Idiosyncratic effect
d. Allergic reaction
The study of the biochemical and physiological effects of drugs as well as their mechanism of action is:
The process by which a drug passes into the fluids of the body is called:
The minimum level of a drug required to elicit a pharmacological response is called the:
a. Minimum effective concentration
b. Peak plasma level
c. Minimum toxic concentration
d. Therapeutic window
The client is an elderly woman with mild liver damage due to hepatitis. The nurse is aware that the client may need reduced dosages of medications because:
a. Liver damage will cause drugs to bind to plasma proteins.
b. The rate of absorption will increase, allowing more drug to enter the bloodstream.
c. The drugs may accumulate in the client’s body and produce toxicity.
d. Her kidneys cannot eliminate medications at the usual rate.
Drug inserts provided by the manufacturer do not include information on:
a. Adverse reactions
b. Drug cost
c. Common trade names
d. Drug interactions
Reduced gastric acidity is a pharmacological difference in children compared with adults. At what age do gastric acid-producing cells in children mature?
a. 10 years
b. 3 years
c. 3 months
d. 13 years
When discussing polypharmacy, the nurse understands that in older adults taking more than eight medications, the risk for drug interactions is approximately:
Because of changes in renal function in older adults, they should be monitored closely for:
b. Drug toxicity
d. Acute renal failure
The health care provider prescribes furosemide for a client. The nurse understands that this drug is a(n):
a. Loop diuretic
b. Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor
c. Thiazide diuretic
d. Osmotic diuretic
When teaching a client about the risk factors for hypertension, the nurse realizes further instruction is needed when the client identifies which of the following as a risk factor:
b. Age over 60
c. Low serum cholesterol
d. Family history of heart disease
The nurse knows that osmotic diuretics are most often used to treat:
a. Increased intracranial pressure (ICP)
b. Chronic renal insufficiency
c. Chronic renal failure
d. Intravascular hypertension
When monitoring clients receiving thiazide diuretics, the nurse would not need to monitor the clients for:
The nurse is caring for a client with renal insufficiency. The diuretic of choice for this client is:
The client receiving which of the following agents should be advised not to use potassium supplements?
a. Hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ)
Labetalol is an effective antihypertensive because of its action as a:
a. Peripherally acting antiadrenergic agent
b. Centrally acting antiadrenergic agent
c. Calcium channel antagonist or blocking agent
d. Beta-adrenergic blocking agent
A client has been placed on mild sodium restriction (1,500 mg/day) and asks the nurse what this restriction involves. The nurse’s best response is:
a. “You should not add salt to cooking and avoid chips and pickles.”
b. “You should avoid eggs, whole milk, and bread, but you can drink skimmed milk.”
c. “You should avoid using table salt on any of your foods.”
d. “You will need to use specially prepared low-sodium foods.”
A client is prescribed captopril and asks the nurse if this is like the atenolol that a neighbor takes for hypertension. The nurse’s best response would be:
a. “No, they both treat hypertension, but work in different ways.”
b. “Yes, they are essentially the same thing.”
c. “No, they are not the same because they are manufactured by different companies.”
d. “Yes, but the dosages are different for different people.”
When caring for a client prescribed hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ) and digoxin, the nurse would monitor the client for:
b. Peripheral edema
The nurse is administering a drug to stimulate alpha-1 adrenergic receptors. The nurse should:
a. Palpate the client’s radial pulse prior to administration of the drug
b. Anticipate resolution of the client’s bronchial asthma attack
c. Monitor the client’s lung sounds
d. Monitor the client’s blood pressure
The nurse understands that these receptors are believed to control neurotransmitter release at the presynaptic neuron in the autonomic nervous system:
A client with bronchial asthma (reactive airway disease) can be expected to be relieved by the administration of a drug that stimulates which of the following receptors?
The nurse is preparing to administer a sympathomimetic medication. This type of medication also is referred to as a(n):
a. Cholinergic agent
b. Nicotinic agent
c. Muscarinic agent
d. Adrenergic agent
When administering a sympathomimetic drug to a client, the nurse would expect the client to exhibit:
b. Increased gastrointestinal motility
d. Bronchiole constriction
The nurse understands that antispasmodics, particularly those with anticholinergic activity, should be given with care to older adults because older adults:
a. Are less likely to have wide-angle glaucoma than younger people
b. Are more likely to have prostatic activity than younger people
c. Are especially sensitive to developing CNS side effects of the drug
d. Are more likely to be noncompliant with the drug therapy
Through a medication error, a client is experiencing an overdose of atropine sulfate. The nurse should:
a. Obtain blood specimen for electrolyte levels
b. Prepare to administer intravenous physostigmine
c. Prepare to administer intramuscular hyoscyamine sulfate
d. Place a padded tongue blade between the client’s teeth
Adrenergic drugs mimic the action of the sympathetic nervous system. Which of the following is a response of the sympathetic nervous system?
a. Increased motility and tone of the GI tract
b. Open the airway
c. Decreased heart rate
d. Contraction of the pupils
After teaching a client prescribed an alpha-adrenergic blocker about adverse effects of his medication, the nurse assesses that the client understands the teaching when the client responds:
a. “I should rise slowly from a reclined or sitting position.”
b. “I should suck on sugar-free hard candy if my mouth gets too dry.”
c. “If I miss a dose, I should double the next dose and then get back on schedule.”
d. “I should be sure to drink plenty of fluids to prevent constipation.”
One of the major cautions in using anticholinergic drugs is their narrow therapeutic index. The nurse knowns this means:
a. It takes only a small amount of medication to treat the problem.
b. The difference between a therapeutic and toxic dose is small.
c. Clients may stop taking the medication because of side effects.
d. The therapeutic level of a drug is reached quickly.
The client with anemia asks the nurse what usually causes anemia. The nurse’s best reply is:
a. “Anemia is a common side effect of medications.”
b. “Your anemia was probably caused by genetic predisposition to anemia.”
c. “The most common cause is a history of pancreatitis.”
d. “Although anemia can have several causes, the most common is nutritional deficits.”
Which of these clients is at risk for folic acid deficiency?
a. 23 year old woman taking oral contraceptives
b. 75 year old man with benign prostatic hypertrophy
c. 55 year old woman experiencing menopause
d. 14 year old adolescent who plays basketball and football
The nurse is evaluating the client understanding of how to take her iron supplements. Which statement demonstrates client understanding?
a. “I can take all 3 tables at one time, but I have to take them on an empty stomach.”
b. “I can take one pill 3 times a day, rather than one large dose, to increase absorption of the iron.”
c. “I take the enteric coated iron table to increase the absorption of the medication.”
d. “I take one pill 3 times a day, rather than one large dose, to decrease gastric irritation.”
A client is being seen by the health care provider for a prescription medication for motion sickness. The nurse anticipates the client will be prescribed:
A client is receiving antiemetic therapy for a history for frequent nausea and vomiting. In caring for this client, the nurse should:
a. Turn the client at least every 2 hours.
b. Monitor for fluid and electrolyte imbalances.
c. Encourage the client to gradually become more active.
d. Assess the client’s skin for areas of breakdown.
The nurse’s priority focus when a client begins to vomit is to:
a. Notify the health care provider.
b. Initiate intravenous fluids as prescribed.
c. Maintain a patent airway.
d. Obtain the client’s vital signs.
When caring for clients receiving oral hypoglycemic agents, the nurse must understand their mechanism of action. For example, glitazones act to:
a. Assist the pancreas in the production of insulin.
b. Stimulate insulin release in the pancreas.
c. Sensitize your body to the insulin that is currently present.
d. Block the breakdown of starches.
The nurse understands that which of the following has the shortest onset of action?
a. Lispro, aspart
When teaching a client with Type 1 diabetes, the nurse recognizes that further teaching is needed when the client includes which of the following as an action of insulin?
a. Promotes converse of glycogen to glucose
b. Enhances protein synthesis
c. Inhibits lipolysis
d. Decreases dietary gastrointestinal absorption of dietary glucose
The nurse is preparing to administer an intermediate insulin. An example of this type of insulin is:
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