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Clotting deficiency can result from thrombocytopenia or hemophilia.
After a wound is sealed, tissue repair is followed by fibrinolysis.
The buffy coat does not contain
The hematocrit is ____________ of the total blood volume.
37% to 52%
_____________ is not found in plasma.
___________ is a protein not commonly found in plasma.
_____________ is the most abundant protein in plasma.
_____________ would not decrease colloid osmotic pressure (COP) in blood.
A diet predominantly based on red meat
Serum is essentially identical to plasma except for the absence of __________.
Tissues can become edematous (swollen) when
there is a dietary protein deficiency.
Myeloid hemopoiesis in adults happens in the
red bone marrow.
The viscosity of blood is due more to _____________ than to any other factor.
Erythrocytes transport oxygen and
transport some carbon dioxide.
Most oxygen is transported bound to
heme groups in hemoglobin.
If all the molecules of hemoglobin contained in RBCs were free in the plasma,
it would significantly increase blood osmolarity.
An increased erythropoietin (EPO) output by the kidneys would lead to all of the following except
Many RBCs die in the
spleen and liver.
All these can lead to polycythemia except
______________ is more likely to cause anemia than any of the other factors below.
Anemia has these potential consequences except
blood viscosity is increased.
What is the final product of the breakdown of the organic nonprotein moiety of hemoglobin?
Correction of hypoxemia is regulated by
a negative feedback loop.
A deficiency of _____________ can cause pernicious anemia.
Sickle-cell disease is not
a cause of malaria.
The ABO blood group is determined by _____________ in the plasma membrane of RBCs.
Type A blood can safely donate RBCs to _____________ and can receive RBCs of type ___________.
Type AB blood has ____________ RBC antigen(s).
A and B
RhoGAM is an antibody given to Rh- women who give birth to Rh+ children. RhoGAM is what type of plasma protein?
gamma (γ) globulin
The universal donor of RBCs, but not necessarily plasma, is
An individual has type B, Rh-positive blood. The individual has _____ antigen(s) and can produce anti-_____ antibody(ies).
B and D; A
The main reason why an individual AB, Rh-negative cannot donate blood to an individual A, Rh-positive is because
anti-B antibodies in the recipient will agglutinate RBCs of the donor.
A woman's first pregnancy is normal but her second pregnancy results in hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN), or erythroblastosis fetalis. The second child needed a transfusion to completely replace the agglutinating blood. The mother is most likely type _____ and both children are most likely _____.
A, Rh-negative; B, Rh-positive
These are the least abundant formed elements.
These are the most abundant agranulocytes.
The differential count of ______________ typically increases in response to bacterial infections.
___________ aid in the body's defense processes by secreting histamine (vasodilator) and heparin (anticoagulant).
Leukopoiesis begins with the differentiation of
pluripotent stem cells (PPSCs).
Some lymphocytes can survive for
A total count above ____________ WBCs/μL is called leukocytosis.
All these can cause leukopenia except
This figure shows the formed elements of blood. What does "7" represent?
Platelets do not secrete
The cessation of bleeding is specifically called
initiates the extrinsic pathway of coagulation.
When a clot is no longer needed, fibrin is dissolved by
All of these prevent the spontaneous formation of a clot except
the presence of tissue thromboplastin.
Platelets release ____________, a chemical vasoconstrictor that contributes to the vascular spasm.
The structural framework of the blood clot is formed by
a fibrin polymer.
Most strokes and heart attacks are caused by the abnormal clotting of blood in an unbroken vessel. Moreover, a piece of the ____________ (clot) may break loose and begin to travel in the bloodstream as a(n) ______________.
__________________ participates in the extrinsic mechanism only.
Most clotting factors are synthesized in the
The pulmonary circuit is supplied by both the right and the left sides of the heart.
The systemic circuit contains oxygen-rich blood only.
Blood in the heart chambers provides most of the myocardium's oxygen and nutrient needs.
____________ carry oxygen-poor blood.
Venae cavae and pulmonary arteries
______________ belong to the pulmonary circuit.
Pulmonary arteries and pulmonary veins
_____________ is the most superficial layer enclosing the heart.
Pericardial fluid is found between
the parietal and visceral membranes.
The ________________ performs the work of the heart.
The tricuspid valve regulates the opening between
the right atrium and right ventricle.
Oxygen-poor blood passes through
the right AV (tricuspid) valve and pulmonary valve.
Opening and closing of the heart valves is caused by
This figure shows the internal anatomy of the heart. What does "2" represent?
the pulmonary valve
This figure shows the internal anatomy of the heart. What blood vessels carry blood to the lungs?
only 6, 7, and 2
This figure shows the internal anatomy of the heart. What blood vessel(s) receive(s) blood from the right ventricle?
2 and 7
This figure shows the internal anatomy of the heart. What does "4" represent?
a papillary muscle
After entering the right atrium, the furthest a red blood cell can travel is the
superior vena cava.
This figure shows the principal coronary blood vessels. Which one is the left coronary artery (LCA)?
Obstruction of the ___________ will cause a more severe myocardial infarction (MI) than the obstruction of any of the others.
left coronary artery (LCA)
Cardiac muscle shares this feature with skeletal muscle.
cardiac muscle fibers have striations
The ________________ is the pacemaker that initiates each heart beat.
sinoatrial (SA) node
Which of these is not part of the cardiac conduction system?
the tendinous cords (TC)
These are features of cardiac muscle fibers except
they have about the same endurance as skeletal muscle fibers.
This is the correct path of an electrical excitation from the pacemaker to a cardiocyte in the left ventricle (LV).
sinoatrial (SA) node → atrioventricular (AV) node → atrioventricular (AV) bundle → Purkinje fibers → cardiocyte in LV
The pacemaker potential is a result of
The plateau in the action potential of cardiac muscle results from the action of
slow Ca2+ channels.
This figure shows electrical activity of the SA node. _____________ indicate(s) when calcium enters the myocytes.
This figure shows an action potential in a ventricular cardiocyte. _____________ indicates when sodium channels are fully open.
Cells of the sinoatrial node ____________ during the pacemaker potential.
Any abnormal cardiac rhythm is called a(n)
If the sinoatrial (SA) is damaged, the heart will likely beat at
40 to 50 bpm.
The _______________ provides most of the Ca2+ needed for myocardial contraction.
Atrial systole begins
immediately after the P wave.
Atrial depolarization causes
the P wave.
The long plateau in the action potential observed in cardiocytes is probably related with _____________ staying longer in their cytosol.
The long absolute refractory period of cardiocytes
This figure shows a normal electrocardiogram. Missing of waves at point ___ might indicate SA node damage.
This figure shows a normal electrocardiogram. Two or more consecutive waves at point "1" might suggest
This figure shows a normal electrocardiogram. The deflection at point(s) _________ is generated by ventricular repolarization and it is called the __________.
3; T wave
When the left ventricle contracts, the _____ valve closes and the _____ valve is pushed open.
Mitral valve prolapse causes blood to leak back into the _______________ when the ventricles contract.
Isovolumetric contraction occurs during the _________ of the electrocardiogram.
During isovolumetric contraction, the pressure in the ventricles
Mitral valve prolapse (MVP) generates a murmur associated with the _____ heart sound that occurs when the ____.
lubb (S1); ventricles contract
This is the correct sequence of events of the cardiac cycle.
ventricular filling → isovolumetric contraction → ventricular ejection → isovolumetric relaxation
Most of the ventricle filling occurs
during atrial diastole.
This figure shows the events of the cardiac cycle. What does "4" represent?
aortic valve opening
This figure shows the events of the cardiac cycle. At 0.2 sec in the graph ____________.
the AV valve is open
Congestive heart failure (CHF) of the right ventricle
can cause systemic edema.
Assume that the left ventricle of a child's heart has an EDV=90mL, and ESV=60mL, and a cardiac output of 2,400 mL/min. His SV and HR are
SV=30 mL/beat, HR=80 bpm.
_____________ increase(s) stroke volume.
Increased venous return
The volume of blood ejected by each ventricle in one minute is called
the cardiac output.
Cardioinhibitory centers in the _____________ receive input from __________.
medulla oblongata; chemoreceptors in the aortic arch
The Frank-Starling law of the heart states that stroke volume is proportional to
the end-diastolic volume.
Blood flow through a capillary bed is regulated by precapillary sphincters.
Large veins, medium veins, and venules have valves to prevent the backflow of blood.
Increased capillary filtration, reduced reabsorption, or obstruction of lymphatic drainage can lead to edema.
Arteries are sometimes called the _______________ vessels of the cardiovascular system because they have strong-resilient tissue strucure.
______________ have the thickest tunica media.
The outermost wall of an artery or vein is called the __________________ and in large arteries and veins contains the ______________.
tunica externa; vasa vasorum
Most blood is in the
These are all possible circulatory routes from the heart except
heart → arteries → capillary bed → vein → capillary bed → arteries → heart
Vasomotion is associated with the presence of
smooth muscle in the tunica media.
In people who stand for long periods, blood tends to pool in the lower limbs and this may result in varicose veins. Varicose veins are caused by
failure of the venous valves.
This figure shows changes in blood pressure relative to distance from the heart. What would be the approximate blood pressure in a blood vessel leaving the stomach for a person lying on her back (not standing)?
below 20 mm Hg
What is the mean arterial pressure for a person with 110 and 65 mm Hg as systolic and diastolic pressure, respectively?
80 mm Hg
The velocity of blood flow decreases when
The medullary ischemic reflex results in
increased circulation to the brain.
_______________ has the most important effect on blood velocity.
Reactive hyperemia is a result of ________________ to increase perfusion into a tissue.
All of these increase blood pressure except
atrial natriuretic peptide.
The vasomotor center of the __________________ controls blood vessels throughout the body.
Hypertension is commonly considered to be a chronic resting blood pressure higher than
____________ are powerful vasoconstrictors, and _______________ also increases heart rate.
Epinephrine and angiotensin II; epinephrine
These are all mechanisms of movement through the capillary wall except
The most important force driving filtration at the arterial end of a capillary is
blood hydrostatic pressure.
________________ by the capillaries at their venous end.
Waste products are taken up
The most important force driving reabsorption at the venous end of a capillary is
blood colloid osmotic pressure.
All these can lead to edema except
____________ would not increase capillary filtration.
A mean arterial pressure (MAP) below 60 mmHg can cause _____, whereas a MAP above 160 mmHg can cause _____________.
syncope; cerebral edema
_______________ does not contribute to venous return.
___________________ shock can be produced by hemorrhage, severe burns, or dehydration.
______________ shock occurs when bacterial toxins trigger vasodilation and increase capillary permeability.
A bee sting can trigger a massive release of histamine, which causes ___________ and a(n) _____________ in arterial blood pressure.
Myocardial infarction can lead to _______________ shock.
The most important force in venous flow is
the pressure generated by the heart.
Blood flow to the _______________ remains quite stable even when mean arterial pressure (MAP) fluctuates from 60 to 140 mm Hg.
Pulmonary arteries have ________________ blood pressure compared to systemic arteries.
How many pulmonary arteries empty into the right atrium of the heart?
The lungs receive a systemic blood supply by way of the
There are no ________________ in humans.
right and left brachiocephalic arteries
The _______________ supplies 80% of the cerebrum.
internal carotid artery
This figure shows the aorta and its major branches. What label shows the artery on the right side of the body with the most extensive distribution of all the head-neck arteries?
The cerebral arterial circle (circle of Willis) is
an anastomosis surrounding the pituitary gland.
This figure shows the superficial veins of the neck and head. What does "8" represent?
the subclavian v.
From superior to inferior, the major branches of the abdominal aorta are
celiac trunk, superior mesenteric artery, renal arteries, gonadal arteries, inferior mesenteric artery, and common iliac arteries.
The principal venous drainage of the thoracic organs is accomplished by way of
the azygos system.
This figure shows the arteries of the abdomen and pelvic region. What does "6" represent?
the inferior mesenteric a.
These are all tributaries of the inferior vena cava except
the vertebral veins.
This figure shows veins of the abdomen and pelvic region. What does "2" represent?
the hepatic portal vein
This figure shows veins of the upper limb. What does "5" represent?
the brachial vein(s)
This figure shows arteries of the lower limb. What does "6" represent?
the femoral artery
These are all veins of the upper limb except
the great saphenous vein.
These are all vessels of the lower limb except
the anterior interosseous artery.
This is the longest vein, and portions of this vein are commonly used as grafts in coronary bypass surgery.
the great saphenous vein
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