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Restriction endonucleases are especially useful if they generate “sticky” ends. What makes an end sticky?
Some vectors such as pUC18 and others of the pUC series contain a large number of restriction enzyme sites clustered in one region. What term is given to this advantageous arrangement of restriction sites?
One of the primary reasons for the necessity of generating a large number of clones in a eukaryotic genomic library is that
A. each cosmid replicates nonautomously.
B. lysogenic phages continue to integrate their DNA into the host chromosome, thus
reducing the number of desired recombinant clones.
C. each vector can take up only a very small fraction of the eukaryotic DNA.
D. each ligation product is sequence-specific.
E. the host range of the vector is limited.
In the context of molecular genetics and recombinant DNA technology, reverse genetics most likely refers to
A. assembling a DNA sequence from an amino acid sequence.
B. assembling an RNA sequence from a DNA sequence.
C. translating in the 3' to 5' direction.
D. transcribing first, then translating.
E. making an amino acid sequence from a DNA sequence.
Assume that a circular plasmid is 3200 base pairs in length and has restriction sites at the following locations: 400, 700, 1400, 2600. Give the expected sizes of the restriction fragments following complete digestion.
Assume that a given plasmid vector to be used in a cloning experiment contains 4000 base pairs of DNA. Assume also that the restriction endonuclease Cuj cuts this plasmid at the following sites (starting from an arbitrary zero point): 1000, 1500, and 3000. Given complete digestion of the plasmid with the endonuclease so that only linear fragments are produced, what sizes of DNA fragments are expected?
What is the specific application of reverse transcriptase in the preparation of cDNA?
Is it possible to make a library from a single chromosome?
In the polymerase chain reaction, what is the purpose of the initial high temperature? What is the purpose of cooling in the second step?
A restriction map provides the location of sites cleaved by restriction enzymes.
A bacterial operon
A. contains information for one protein product.
B. contains information for more than one protein product.
C. is capped at the 5′ end and carries a poly-A tail at the 3′ end.
D. is void of start (AUG) and termination (UAA, UGA, UAG) triplets.
E. none of the above
When two proteins show a 50 to 70 percent match in amino acid sequence, it is likely that
A. the two proteins have identical functions.
B. the two proteins have no common origin.
C. the two proteins share a common ancestry.
D. the two proteins have identical tertiary structures.
E. the primary structures may differ but the secondary structures are identical.
In general, the organization of genes in bacteria is different from that in eukaryotes. In E. coli, approximately 27 percent of all genes are organized into contiguous, functionally related units containing multiple genes under coordinate control that are transcribed as a single unit. Such contiguous gene families are called
What is a concise definition of proteomics?
A. the process of defining the complete set of proteins encoded by a genome
B. the harvesting of proteins from a cell to determine their economic value
C. the manipulation of amino acid sequences in proteins to alter their function
D. changing the terminal sequences of proteins to alter their function
E. the rational design of drugs based on protein structure
The entire yeast genome has only about 240 introns, whereas some single genes in humans contain over 100 introns. In general, smaller genomes have smaller intron size in addition to lower intron number.
What two factors contribute significantly to the wide ranges of genome size among eukaryotes?
The genomic organization of all living creatures is identical.
The terms proteomics and genomics mean essentially the same thing.
Introns are found only in prokaryotic genomes.
In humans, no genes are larger than 2 kb.
VNTRs are sections of DNA with the following characteristics:
A. variable amino acid substitutions, highly heterogeneous.
B. variable numbers of tandem repeats, highly uniform in the population.
C. variable numbers of tandem repeats, variable in the population.
D. various nucleotides transcribed repeatedly, homogeneous.
E. very noteworthy transcribed regions, lethal genes.
Short tandem repeats (STRs) are very similar to VNTRs, but the motif is shorter (two to nine base pairs). The FBI and other law enforcement agencies couple PCR with STR analyses to
A. increase the number of records for each suspect from two to nine.
B. alter the genetic makeup of their agents.
C. establish databases against which suspects can be screened.
D. genetically type all individuals in any given country.
E. calculate the probability that a given gene will exist in a given population.
A DNA microarray (also called a DNA chip) can be used to
A. mutate genes of interest.
B. isolate genes from eukaryotic cell nuclei.
C. assay protein output from a genomic database.
D. trap genes that are both active and inactive.
E. scan a population of nucleic acids for abundance and mutations.
What are the commonly used sources of variation applied to human DNA profiling?
Often variations in DNA can be revealed by restriction endonucleases to generate restriction fragment-length polymorphisms (RFLPs). In addition, VNTRs, SNPs, and STRs provide individual variation suitable for DNA profiling.
DNA fingerprinting often makes use of VNTRs. Why?
VNTRs (variable number tandem repeats) are highly variable portions of eukaryotic chromosomes. They are sufficiently variable as to be unique to each individual.
What is an allele-specific oligonucleotide?
An allele-specific oligonucleotide is a stretch of DNA capable of either base pairing with a specific allele or failing to do so. Either way, such oligonucleotides can be used, under stringent hybridization conditions, to detect minor differences in DNA sequences.
Glyphosate (a herbicide) inhibits EPSP, a chloroplast enzyme involved in the synthesis of several amino acids.
One of the problems associated with the generation of transgenic plants is that the ecological parameters of many plants are not completely understood.
Drosophila contains a number of transposable genetic elements including P elements, which allow genetic markers to be inserted into the genome.
Mutant versions of genes that are normally involved in promoting the cell cycle are known as
A. tumor suppressors.
D. malignant genes.
Concerning sporadic cases (non-familial) of retinoblastoma, at least how many gene mutations are thought to be necessary in the same cell for a tumor to develop?
E. insufficient information to answer this question
What protein functions as a cell-cycle regulator by causing cell death (apoptosis) after the cell has been exposed to ultraviolet light or other forms of radiation?
What are three general mechanisms that appear to result in the conversion of proto-oncogenes to oncogenes?
A. point mutations, translocations, overexpression
B. inversions, translocations, methylation
C. familial, sporadic, phosphorylation
D. transdetermination, mutation, allosteric interactions
E. suppression, tabulation, projection
condensation of chromatin to form chromosomes, breakdown of the nuclear membrane, alterations in the cytoskeleton, formation of an active CDK1/cyclin B complex
What is a tumor suppressor gene? What are oncogenes? What is the normal (nonmutant) cellular version of an oncogene called?
The ras gene family encodes a protein of 189 amino acids, which is involved with signal transduction in the cell membrane. Point mutations may cause changes in function that promote abnormal signaling, thus stimulating uncontrolled cell growth.
Describe three separate genetic mechanisms whereby proto-oncogenes can become overexpressed.
What is the difference between tumor suppressor genes and proto-oncogenes?
What is p53 and what is its significance?
It is a tumor suppressor gene that normally functions to control the transition from late G1 to S phase. Mutations in the p53 gene are important in the development of a number of cancers. The product of p53 has DNA-binding properties.
The gene p53 is called the “guardian of the genome” because it corrects mutations in the spindle apparatus before nondisjunction can occur.
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