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Which type of nerve fibers transmits pain impulses?
A-delta (Aδ) fibers
Where are the primary-order pain transmitting neurons located within the spinal cord?
Dorsal root ganglia
The gate in the GCT of pain is located in the:
Which spinal tract carries the most nociceptive information?
The major relay station of sensory information is located in the
Where in the CNS does a person’s learned pain response occur?
Massage therapy relieves pain by closing the pain gate with the stimulation which fibers?
What part of the brain provides the emotional response to pain?
Which neurotransmitters inhibit pain in the medulla and pons?
Norepinephrine and serotonin
Which endogenous opioid is located in the hypothalamus and pituitary and is a strong μ-receptor agonist?
What is the term that denotes the duration of time or the intensity of pain that a person will endure before outwardly responding?
Pain that warns of actual or impending tissue injury is referred to as what?
Which description characterizes visceral pain?
Is perceived as poorly localized and is transmitted by the sympathetic nervous system.
When caring for a person who has experienced pain for 3 days, anxiety is likely to produce which physical signs that a nurse would expect to find?
Increased heart rate and respiratory rate with diaphoresis
Enkephalins and endorphins act to relieve pain by which process?
Attaching to opiate receptor sites
What is a long-term complication of rewarming as a treatment for hypothermia?
How does the release (increase) of epinephrine raise body temperature?
It raises the metabolic rate.
Using a fan to reduce body temperature is an example of which mechanism of heat loss?
Up to how many liters of fluid per hour may be lost by sweating?
Heat loss from the body via radiation occurs by:
Emanations of electromagnetic waves
Which cytokines are endogenous pyrogens?
IL-1, IL-6, TNF-α, and IFN-γ
Which hormones help diminish the febrile response?
Arginine vasopressin (AVP), melanocyte-stimulating hormone-alpha (α-MSH), and corticotropin-releasing factor
Prolonged high environmental temperatures that produce dehydration, decreased plasma volumes, hypotension, decreased cardiac output, and tachycardia cause which disorder of temperature regulation?
In acute hypothermia, what physiologic change shunts blood away from the colder skin to the body core in an effort to decrease heat loss?
A heat stroke is characterized by:
Sweat production on the face occurring even during dehydration
Which medication is used to reverse the effects of malignant hyperthermia?
The major sleep center is located in which section of the brain?
Which neuropeptide promotes wakefulness?
Which neuropeptide promotes wakefulness?
Which term is also used to refer to paradoxic sleep?
The sudden apparent arousal in which a child expresses intense fear or another strong emotion while still in a sleep state characterizes which sleep disorder?
Coronary artery disease is most affected by which component of sleep?
Rapid eye movement (REM) sleep occurs in cycles approximately every:
Loud snoring, a decrease in oxygen saturation, fragmented sleep, chronic daytime sleepiness, and fatigue are clinical manifestations of which sleep disorder?
Obstructive sleep apnea
What are the expected changes in sleep patterns of older adults?
Older adults experience difficulty falling asleep with less time spent in REM sleep.
Pinkeye is characterized by inflammation of which structure?
Open-angle glaucoma occurs because of:
Obstructed outflow of aqueous humor
How can glaucoma cause blindness?
Pressure on the optic nerve
When comparing the effects of acute and chronic pain on an individual, chronic pain is more often:
A factor that contributes to depression
When considering the risk factors for the development of phantom limb pain, the nurse recognizes which as a primary contributing factor?
Presence of pain in the limb before amputation
Based on an understanding of the physiologic process of nociceptors, the nurse expects which surgical procedure to create more pain?
Repair of several crushed fingers
The basis of the specificity theory of pain is that:
The greater the tissue injury, the greater the pain.
Which statement is true regarding the gate control theory (GCT) of pain?
An open gate facilitates the brain in processing the pain.
Which factors contribute to sensorineural hearing loss? (Select all that apply.)
Why are children more susceptible to heat stroke than are adults? (Select all that apply.)
Children produce more metabolic heat when exercising.
They have more surface area–to-mass ratio.
Children have less sweating capacity.
Heat exhaustion results in: (Select all that apply.)
A need to ingest warm liquids
It is true that a fever: (Select all that apply.)
Is a complex cascade involving several different systems.
Can be a result of a dysfunctional hypothalamus.
Triggers endocrine responses.
Is in response to a pyrogen.
Match the types of chronic pain with its description. Types of pain may be used more than once.
______ A. Myofascial pain syndrome
______ B. Neuropathic pain
______ C. Deafferentation pain
______ D. Sympathetically maintained pain
49.Pain that results from tumor infiltration of nerve tissue, from trauma or chemical injury to the nerve, or from damage from radiation, chemotherapy, or surgical sectioning of the nerve
50.Pain that is thought to be caused by trauma or disease of nerves and leads to abnormal processing of sensory information by the peripheral and central nervous systems
51.Pain that occurs after peripheral nerve injury and is described as continuous with severe sensations and a burning quality
52.Pain that is the result of muscle spasms, tenderness, and stiffness and leads to muscle guarding that limits muscle motion
MSC:Deafferentation pain results from trauma or chemical injury to the peripheral nervous system, from tumor infiltration of nerve tissue, or from damage from radiation, chemotherapy, or surgical sectioning of a nerve with the loss of sensory input to the central nervous system.
MSC:Neuropathic pain is the result of trauma or disease of nerves and leads to abnormal processing of sensory information by the peripheral and central nervous systems.
MSC:Sympathetically maintained pain (SMP) is another type of neuropathic pain that occurs after peripheral nerve or extremity injury and is characterized as continuous and severe with a burning quality.
MSC:Myofascial pain syndrome (MPS) is associated with injury to muscle, fascia, and tendons.
Cognitive operations cannot occur without the effective functioning of the brain’s:
Reticular activating system
Which intracerebral disease process is capable of producing diffuse dysfunction?
What is the most common infratentorial brain disease process that results in the direct destruction of the reticulating activation system (RAS)?
What stimulus causes posthyperventilation apnea (PHVA)?
Changes in PaCO2 levels
Posthyperventilation apnea (PHVA) ceases and rhythmic breathing is resumed when levels of arterial
Carbon dioxide become normal
Cheyne-Stokes respirations are described as a:
Crescendo-decrescendo pattern of breathing, followed by a period of apnea
Vomiting is associated with central nervous system (CNS) injuries that compress which of the brain’s anatomic locations?
Vestibular nuclei in the lower brainstem
Which midbrain dysfunction causes pupils to be pinpoint size and fixed in position?
What characteristic is a medical criterion of brain death?
A clinical manifestation caused by damage to the lower pons includes an abnormal:
Extension response of the upper and lower extremities
Which person is at the greatest risk for developing delirium?
An individual on the second day after hip replacement
A sudden, explosive, disorderly discharge of cerebral neurons is termed:
A complex partial seizure is described as:
Impairment of both consciousness and the ability to react to exogenous stimuli
Status epilepticus is considered a medical emergency because of the:
Development of cerebral hypoxia
The most critical aspect in correctly diagnosing a seizure disorder and establishing its cause is:
What type of seizure starts in the fingers and progressively spreads up the arm and extends to the leg?
Focal (partial) Jacksonian seizure
What area of the brain mediates the executive attention functions?
What term describes the loss of the comprehension or production of language?
With receptive dysphasia (fluent), the individual is able to:
Comprehend speech, but not verbally respond.
What is the normal intracranial pressure (in mm Hg)?
5 to 15
Cerebral edema is an increase in the fluid content of the brain’s:
What type of cerebral edema occurs when permeability of the capillary endothelium increases after injury to the vascular structure?
A communicating hydrocephalus is caused by an impairment of the:
Absorption of cerebrospinal fluid
Which edema is most often observed with noncommunicating hydrocephalus?
Which dyskinesia involves involuntary movements of the face, trunk, and extremities?
Antipsychotic drugs cause tardive dyskinesia by mimicking the effects of increased:
The existence of regular, deep, and rapid respirations after a severe closed head injury is indicative of neurologic injury to the:
What type of posturing exists when a person with a severe closed head injury has all four extremities in rigid extension with the forearms in hyperpronation and the legs in plantar extension?
Since his cerebrovascular accident, a man has been denying his left hemiplegia. What term is used to describe this finding?
After a cerebrovascular accident, a man is unable to either feel or identify a comb with his eyes closed. This is an example of:
Most dysphasias are associated with cerebrovascular accidents involving which artery?
Tactile agnosia is related to injury of which area of the brain?
Neurofibrillary tangles characterize which neurologic disorder?
The body compensates for a rise in intracranial pressure by first displacing the:
Stage 1 intracranial hypertension is caused by the:
Displacement of cerebrospinal fluid, followed by compression of the cerebral venous system
Dilated and sluggish pupils, widening pulse pressure, and bradycardia are clinical findings evident of which stage of intracranial hypertension?
Dilation of the ipsilateral pupil, following uncal herniation, is the result of pressure on which cranial nerve (CN)?
Oculomotor (CN III)
Which characteristic is the most critical index of nervous system dysfunction?
Level of consciousness
Diagnostic criteria for a persistent vegetative state include:
Return of autonomic functions such as gastrointestinal function
Uncal herniation occurs when:
The hippocampal gyrus shifts from the middle fossa through the tentorial notch into the posterior fossa.
Which assessment finding marks the end of spinal shock?
Gradual return of spinal reflexes
Characteristics of primary motor neuron atrophy include:
Fasciculations and muscle cramps
The weakness resulting from the segmental paresis and paralysis characteristic of anterior horn cell injury is difficult to recognize because:
Two or more nerve roots supply each muscle.
Parkinson disease is a degenerative disorder of the brain’s:
Clinical manifestations of Parkinson disease are caused by a deficit in which of the brain’s neurotransmitters?
Tremors at rest, rigidity, akinesia, and postural abnormalities are a result of the atrophy of neurons in the brain’s:
Substantia nigra that produces dopamine
Dementia is commonly characterized by the deterioration in which abilities? (Select all that apply.)
The clinical manifestations of Parkinson disease include: (Select all that apply.)
In Parkinson disease the basal ganglia influence the hypothalamic function to produce which clinical manifestations? (Select all that apply.)
Diffuse axonal injuries (DAIs) of the brain often result in:
Reduced levels of consciousness
What event is most likely to occur to the brain in a classic cerebral concussion?
Brief period of vital sign instability
Which disorder has clinical manifestations that include decreased consciousness for up to 6 hours, as well as retrograde and posttraumatic amnesia?
What group is most at risk of spinal cord injury from minor trauma?
The edema of the upper cervical cord after spinal cord injury is considered life threatening because of which possible outcome?
Breathing difficulties from an impairment to the diaphragm
What indicates that spinal shock is terminating?
Reflex emptying of the bladder
What term is used to describe the complication that can result from a spinal cord injury above T6 that is producing paroxysmal hypertension, as well as piloerection and sweating above the spinal cord lesion?
Why does a person who has a spinal cord injury experience faulty control of sweating?
The hypothalamus is unable to regulate body heat as a result of damage to the sympathetic nervous system.
Autonomic hyperreflexia–induced bradycardia is a result of stimulation of the:
Carotid sinus to the vagus nerve to the sinoatrial node
A herniation of which disk will likely result in motor and sensory changes of the lateral lower legs and soles of the feet?
Which condition poses the highest risk for a cerebrovascular accident (CVA)?
A right hemisphere embolic CVA has resulted in left-sided paralysis and reduced sensation of the left foot and leg. Which cerebral artery is most likely affected by the emboli?
Atrial fibrillation, rheumatic heart disease, and valvular prosthetics are risk factors for which type of stroke?
Microinfarcts resulting in pure motor or pure sensory deficits are the result of which type of stroke?
Which vascular malformation is characterized by arteries that feed directly into veins through vascular tangles of abnormal vessels?
Which clinical finding is considered a diagnostic indicator for an arteriovenous malformation (AVM)?
Systolic bruit over the carotid artery
Which cerebral vascular hemorrhage causes meningeal irritation, photophobia, and positive Kernig and Brudzinski signs?
In adults, most intracranial tumors are located:
In children, most intracranial tumors are located:
The most common primary central nervous system (CNS) tumor is the:
Meningiomas characteristically compress from:
Outside the spinal cord
What is the central component of the pathogenic model of multiple sclerosis?
Demyelination of nerve fibers in the CNS
A blunt force injury to the forehead would result in a coup injury to which region of the brain?
A blunt force injury to the forehead would result in a contrecoup injury to which region of the brain?
Spinal cord injuries most likely occur in which region?
Cervical and thoracic-lumbar
The most likely rationale for body temperature fluctuations after cervical spinal cord injury is that the person has:
Sustain sympathetic nervous system damage resulting in disturbed thermal control.
A man who sustained a cervical spinal cord injury 2 days ago suddenly develops severe hypertension and bradycardia. He reports severe head pain and blurred vision. The most likely explanation for these clinical manifestations is that he is:
Developing autonomic hyperreflexia
The type of vascular malformation that most often results in hemorrhage
Atheromatous plaques are most commonly found:
At branches of arteries
Multiple sclerosis is best described as a(an):
Central nervous system demyelination, possibly from an immunogenetic virus
What is the most common opportunistic infection associated with acquired immunodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)?
It is true that Guillain-Barré syndrome (GBS)
Is preceded by a viral illness.
It is true that myasthenia gravis:
Causes muscle weakness.
In which disorder are acetylcholine receptor antibodies (IgG antibodies) produced against acetylcholine receptors?
Multiple sclerosis and Guillain-Barré syndrome are similar in that they both:
Result from demyelination by an immune reaction.
Which clinical manifestation is characteristic of cluster headaches? (Select all that apply.)
What are the initial clinical manifestations immediately noted after a spinal cord injury? (Select all that apply.)
Loss of deep tendon reflexes
______ A. Complication of mastoiditis
______ B. Opportunistic infection
______ C. CNS manifestation of tuberculosis
______ D. Mosquito-borne viral infection
______ E. Tick-borne bacterial infection
MSC:Tubercular meningitis is the most common and serious form of central nervous system (CNS) tuberculosis.
MSC:Encephalitis is an acute febrile illness, usually of viral origin, with nervous system involvement. Arthropod-borne (mosquito-borne) viruses and herpes simplex cause the most common encephalitides.
MSC:Opportunistic infections may be bacterial, fungal, protozoal, or viral in origin and produce nervous system disease. Cryptococcus neoformans is an example of such an infection.
MSC:Abscesses may occur in association with a contiguous spread of infection, such as the middle ear, mastoid cells, nasal cavity, and nasal sinuses.
MSC:Lyme disease, a tick-borne spirochete bacterial infection, is a common arthropod-borne infection in the United States.
The neural groove closes dorsally during which week of gestational life?
Which nutritional deficiency in a pregnant woman is associated with neural tube defect (NTD)?
Which defect of neural tube closure is most common?
What is the anomaly in which the soft bony component of the skull and much of the brain is missing?
The most common cause of obstructive hydrocephalus in infants is:
Stenosis of the aqueduct of Sylvius
What is the term for a herniation or protrusion of brain and meninges through a defect in the skull?
What is the result of a Chiari type II malformation associated with a myelomeningocele?
Downward displacement of the cerebellum, brainstem, and fourth ventricle
Prompt surgical repair of a myelomeningocele is critical to best prevent:
Additional nervous system damage
Which body system is the largest site for human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) infection in infants and children?
Central nervous system
An infant diagnosed with hydrocephalus is observed to demonstrate:
Gait disturbances and instability are characteristic of which form of cerebral palsy?
Children with phenylketonuria (PKU) are unable to synthesize:
Essential amino acid, phenylalanine, to tyrosine
Benign febrile seizures are characterized by:
Respiratory or ear infections
What is the most common general symptom of a localized childhood brain tumor?
Increased intracranial pressure
The tonic neck reflex observed in a newborn should no longer be obtainable by:
What term is used to describe a hernial protrusion of a saclike cyst that contains meninges, spinal fluid, and a portion of the spinal cord through a defect in a posterior arch of a vertebra?
What test is performed on amniotic fluid and maternal blood to test for neural tube defect?
The clinical manifestations of dyskinetic cerebral palsy include:
Jerky uncontrolled and abrupt fine musculoskeletal movements
Which musculoskeletal deformities are associated with myelomeningocele? (Select all that apply.)
Dislocation of the hips
True microcephaly can be caused by: (Select all that apply.)
Which statements regarding the term myelodysplasia are true? (Select all that apply.)
Myelodysplasia is used to define a defect in the formation of the spinal cord.
Myelodysplasia can be used to refer to a form of spina bifida.
Match the tumor name with its site of development.
______ A. Medulloblastoma
______ B. Ependymoma
______ C. Cerebellar astrocytoma
______ D. Craniopharyngioma
______ E. Neuroblastoma
22.Originates in the neural crest that normally forms the sympathetic ganglia and adrenal medulla.
23.Develops in the fourth ventricle.
24.Develops in the vermis of the cerebellum and may extend to the fourth ventricle.
25.Originates from the pituitary or hypothalamus.
26.Causes unilateral symptoms such as nystagmus.
MSC:A neuroblastoma is an embryonal aggressive tumor that originates in the neural crest cells that normally give rise to the sympathetic nervous system (sympathetic ganglia and the adrenal medulla).
MSC:The ependymoma develops in the fourth ventricle and arises from the ependymal cells that line the ventricular system.
MSC:A medulloblastoma is an embryonal tumor and the most common childhood malignant tumor. It occurs as an invasive tumor that develops in the vermis of the cerebellum and may extend into the fourth ventricle.
MSC:The area of the sella turcica, the structure containing the pituitary gland, is the site of several childhood brain tumors, including craniopharyngioma (the most common). These tumors may originate from the pituitary gland or the hypothalamus.
MSC:Cerebellar astrocytomas are located on the surface of the right or left cerebellar hemisphere and cause unilateral symptoms (occurring on the same side of the tumor), such as head tilt, limb ataxia, and nystagmus when the eyes are turned toward the tumor.
What imbalance lessens the rate of secretion of parathyroid hormone (PTH)?
Increased serum calcium levels
Regulation of the release of catecholamines from the adrenal medulla is an example of which type of regulation?
How does a faulty negative-feedback mechanism result in a hormonal imbalance?
Excessive hormone production results from a failure to turn off the system.
Which substance is a water-soluble protein hormone?
Which of the following is a lipid-soluble hormone?
Most protein hormones are transported in the bloodstream and are:
Free in an unbound, water-soluble form
When insulin binds its receptors on muscle cells, an increase in glucose uptake by the muscle cells is the result. This is an example of what type of effect by a hormone?
Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is released to stimulate thyroid hormone (TH) and is inhibited when plasma levels of TH are adequate. This is an example of:
Lipid-soluble hormone receptors are located:
Inside the plasma membrane in the cytoplasm
Which second messenger is stimulated by epinephrine binding to a β-adrenergic receptor?
Cyclic adenosine monophosphate (cAMP)
Which hormone does the second messenger calcium (Ca++) bind to activate phospholipase C through a G protein?
The control of calcium in cells is important because it:
Acts as a second messenger.
The portion of the pituitary that secretes oxytocin is:
Antidiuretic hormone acts to cause vasoconstriction when:
Vasopressin is pharmacologically administered.
What is the target tissue for prolactin-releasing factor?
Where is antidiuretic hormone (ADH) synthesized, and where does it act?
Hypothalamus; renal tubular cells
Where is oxytocin synthesized?
The releasing hormones that are made in the hypothalamus travel to the anterior pituitary via the:
Portal hypophyseal blood vessels
Which mineral is needed for thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) to stimulate the secretion of thyroid hormone (TH)?
Which hormone triggers uterine contractions?
What effect does hyperphosphatemia have on other electrolytes?
Decreases serum calcium.
Insulin transports which electrolyte in the cell?
A person who has experienced physiologic stresses will have increased levels of which hormone?
What is the action of calcitonin?
Decreases serum calcium.
Which hormone is involved in the regulation of serum calcium levels?
Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
Which hormone inhibits the secretion of growth hormone (GH)?
Target cells for parathyroid hormone are located in the:
Tubules of nephrons
Which compound or hormone is secreted by the adrenal medulla?
The secretion of adrenocorticotropic-stimulating hormone (ACTH) will result in the increased level of which hormone?
Which human physiologic system is believed to be an integral factor in unhealthy aging?
What are the effects of aging on pancreatic cells?
Pancreatic cells are replaced by fat cells.
Aldosterone directly increases the reabsorption of:
Which is an expected hormonal change in an older patient?
Thyroid-stimulating hormone secretion below normal
What are actions of glucocorticoids? (Select all that apply.)
Decreasing muscle cell reuptake of glucose
Match the anatomic structure with its hormone. Names of structures may be used more than once.
______ A. Anterior pituitary
______ B. Posterior pituitary
______ C. Thyroid
______ D. Adrenal cortex
______ E. Adrenal medulla
MSC:The thyroid gland secretes calcitonin.
MSC:The adrenal cortex secretes several steroid hormones, including the glucocorticoids (mainly cortisol), the mineralocorticoids (mainly aldosterone), and the adrenal androgens and estrogens.
MSC:The posterior pituitary secretes two polypeptide hormones: (1) ADH, also called arginine vasopressin, and (2) oxytocin.
MSC:The anterior pituitary releases six major stimulatory hormones. They can be grouped into three categories: (1) corticotropin-related hormones (ACTH, B-lipoprotein, melanocyte-stimulating hormone [MSH], and related endorphins), (2) glycoproteins (LH, FSH, and TSH), and (3) somatomammotropins (GH and prolactin).
MSC:The major products secreted by the adrenal medulla are the catecholamines epinephrine (adrenaline) and norepinephrine.
The effects of the syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH) secretion include solute:
Dilution and water retention
The common cause of elevated levels of antidiuretic hormone (ADH) secretion is:
Ectopically produced ADH
Which laboratory value would the nurse expect to find if a person is experiencing syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)?
Serum sodium (Na+) level of 120 mEq/L and serum hypoosmolality
Diabetes insipidus is a result of:
Antidiuretic hormone hyposecretion
A patient who is diagnosed with a closed head injury has a urine output of 6 to 8 L/day. Electrolytes are within normal limits, but his antidiuretic hormone (ADH) level is low. Although he has had no intake for 4 hours, no change in his polyuria level has occurred. These symptoms support a diagnosis of:
Neurogenic diabetes insipidus
The cause of neurogenic diabetes insipidus (DI) is related to an organic lesion of the:
Which form of diabetic insipidus (DI) will result if the target cells for antidiuretic hormone (ADH) in the renal collecting tubules demonstrate insensitivity?
Which laboratory value is consistently low in a patient with diabetes insipidus (DI)?
Which form of diabetes insipidus (DI) is treatable with exogenous antidiuretic hormone (ADH)?
Which condition may result from pressure exerted by a pituitary tumor?
The term used to describe a person who experiences a lack of all hormones associated with the anterior pituitary is:
Visual disturbances are a result of a pituitary adenoma because of the:
Pressure of the tumor on the optic chiasm
Which disorder is considered a co-morbid condition of acromegaly?
Which disorder is caused by hypersecretion of the growth hormone (GH) in adults?
Giantism occurs only in children and adolescents because their:
Epiphyseal plates have not yet closed.
Amenorrhea, galactorrhea, hirsutism, and osteoporosis are each caused by a:
Graves disease develops from a(n):
Thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulin that causes overproduction of thyroid hormones
The signs of thyrotoxic crisis include:
Hyperthermia and tachycardia
Pathologic changes associated with Graves disease include:
High levels of circulating thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulins
The level of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) in individuals with Graves disease is usually:
Palpation of the neck of a person diagnosed with Graves disease would detect a thyroid that is:
A deficiency of which chemical may result in hypothyroidism?
What are clinical manifestations of hypothyroidism?
Constipation, decreased heat rate, and lethargy
Diagnosing a thyroid carcinoma is best performed with:
Fine-needle aspiration biopsy
Renal failure is the most common cause of which type of hyperparathyroidism?
The most common cause of hypoparathyroidism is:
Parathyroid gland damage
The most probable cause of low serum calcium after a thyroidectomy is:
Hypoparathyroidism caused by surgical injury
A patient diagnosed with diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) has the following laboratory values: arterial pH 7.20; serum glucose 500 mg/dl; positive urine glucose and ketones; serum potassium (K+) 2 mEq/L; serum sodium (Na+) 130 mEq/L. The patient reports that he has been sick with the “flu” for 1 week. What relationship do these values have to his insulin deficiency?
Decreased glucose use causes fatty acid use, ketogenesis, metabolic acidosis, and osmotic diuresis.
Polyuria occurs with diabetes mellitus because of the:
Elevation in serum glucose
Type 2 diabetes mellitus is best described as a(an):
Resistance to insulin by insulin-sensitive tissues
A person diagnosed with type 1 diabetes experiences hunger, lightheadedness, tachycardia, pallor, headache, and confusion. The most probable cause of these symptoms is:
Hypoglycemia caused by increased exercise
Which serum glucose level would indicate hypoglycemia in a newborn?
When comparing the clinical manifestations of both diabetic ketoacidosis (DKA) and hyperglycemic hyperosmolar nonketotic syndrome (HHNKS), which condition is associated with only DKA?
Hypoglycemia, followed by rebound hyperglycemia, is observed in those with:
The Somogyi effect
The first laboratory test that indicates type 1 diabetes is causing the development of diabetic nephropathy is:
Protein on urinalysis
Which classification of oral hypoglycemic drugs decreases hepatic glucose production and increases insulin sensitivity and peripheral glucose uptake?
What causes the microvascular complications in patients with diabetes mellitus?
The capillary basement membranes thicken, and cell hyperplasia develops.
Retinopathy develops in patients with diabetes mellitus because:
Retinal ischemia and red blood cell aggregation occur.
A person has acne, easy bruising, thin extremities, and truncal obesity. These clinical manifestations are indicative of which endocrine disorder?
A person may experience which complications as a result of a reduction in parathyroid hormone (PTH)? (Select all that apply.)
A chronic complication of diabetes mellitus is likely to result in microvascular complications in which areas? (Select all that apply.)
Match the phrases with the corresponding terms.
______ A. Acromegaly
______ B. Cushing disease
______ C. Addison disease
______ D. Graves disease
______ E. Myxedema
______ F. Pheochromocytoma
43.Hypersecretion of thyroid hormone (TH)
44.Hypersecretion of adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
45.Hypersecretion of adrenal medulla hormones
46.Hyposecretion of thyroid hormone (TH)
47.Hyposecretion of adrenal cortex hormones
48.Hypersecretion of growth hormone (GH)
MSC:Graves disease is caused by the hypersecretion of TH.
MSC:Cushing disease is caused by the hypersecretion of ACTH.
MSC:Pheochromocytoma is a tumor that causes hypersecretion of adrenal medulla hormones.
MSC:Myxedema is the long-standing hyposecretion of TH.
MSC:Addison disease is a result of hyposecretion of adrenal cortex hormones.
MSC:Acromegaly is the condition associated with the exposure of adults to high levels of GH.
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