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1) 802.11 technology is typically deployed at which fundamental layer of network architecture?
2) Which organization is responsible for enforcing maxumum transmit power rules in an unlicensed frequency band?
3) 802.11 wireless bridge links are typically associated with which network architecture layer?
4) The 802.11-2007 standard was created by which organization?
5) What organization ensures interoperability of WLAN products?
6) What type of signal is required to carry data?
7) Which keying method is most susceptible to interference from noise?
8) Which sublayer of the OSI model's Data-Link layer is used for communication between 802.11 radios?
9) The term "Wi-Fi" is an acronym for which of these phrases?
None of the above
10) The Wi-Fi Alliance is responsible for which of the following certification programs? (Choose two.)
11) Which wave properties can be modulated to encode data? (choose three)
12) The IEEE 802.11-2007 standard defines communication mechanisms at which layers of the OSI model? (Choose two.)
13) The height or power of a wave is known as what?
14) Global spectrum management is tasked to what organization?
15) A modulated signal capable of carrying data is known as what?
*d. Carrier signal
16) Which of the following wireless communications parameters and usage are typically governed by a local regulatory authority? (Choose all that apply.)
*c. Maximum power
*d. Maximum EIRP
*e. Indoor/outdoor usage
17) The Wi-Fi Alliance is responsible for which of the following certification programs? (Choose all that apply.)
*b. Voice Personal
18) A wave is divided into degrees. How many degrees make up a complete wave?
19) What are the advantages of using unlicensed frequency bands for RF transmissions? (Choose all that apply.)
*b. There is no financial cost.
*c. Anyone can use the frequency band.
20) The OSI model consists of how many layers?
21) What are some results of multipath interference? (choose two)
*c. Excessive retransmissions
22) What term best defines the distance traveled in one positive to negative to positive oscillation of an electromagnetic signal?
23) Which of the following statements are true about amplification? (choose two)
*c. Antennas are passive gain amplifiers that focus the energy of a signal in one direction.
*e. Signal strength may passively increase due to multipath.
24) A standard measurement of frequency is called what?
25) When an RF signal bends around an object, this propagation behavior is known as what?
26) When the multiple RF signals arrive at a receiver at the same time and are ___________ with the primary wave, the result can be ___________.
*f. 180 degrees out of phase, cancellation
27) Which of the following statements are true? (choose two)
*b. As a result of downfade, a final received signal will never be stronger than the original transmitted signal.
*c. As a result of upfade, a final received signal will never be stronger than the original transmitted signal.
28) What is the frequency of an RF signal that cycles 2.4 million times per second?
*b. 2.4 MHz
29) What is an example of a time domain tool that could be used by an RF engineer?
30) What are some objects or materials that may cause reflection? (chose three)
*c. Asphalt road
31) Which of these propagation behaviors can result in multipath? (Choose all that apply.)
32) Which behavior can be described as an RF signal encountering a chain link fence, causing the signal to bounce into multiple directions?
33) What is another name for background noise?
*c. Noise floor
34) Which of the following can cause refraction of an RF signal traveling through it? (choose four)
*a. Shift in air temperature
*b. Change in air pressure
35) Which of the following statements are true about free space path loss? (choose two)
*a. RF signals will attenuate as they travel despite the lack of attenuation caused by obstructions.
*d. Path loss occurs at a logarithmic rate.
36) What term is used to describe the time differential between a primary signal and a reflected signal arriving at a receiver?
*d. Delay spread
37) What is an example of a frequency domain tool that could be used by an RF engineer?
*c. Spectrum analyzer
38) Using knowledge of RF characteristics and behaviors, which of the following options should a WLAN engineer be most concerned about during an indoor site survey? (choose two)
*a. Firewall door
*c. User density
39) Which three properties have an interrelated?
*a. Frequency, wavelength, and the speed of light
40) Which RF behavior best describes a signal striking a medium and bending in a different direction?
41) What RF component is responsible for generating the AC signal?
42) A point source that radiates signal equally in all directions is known as what?
*e. Isotropic radiator
43) When calculating the link budget and system operating margin of a point-to-point outdoor WLAN bridge link, what factors should be taken into account? (Choose all that apply.)
*b. Receive sensitivity
*c. Transmit amplitude
*e. Cable loss
44) The sum of all the components from the transmitter to the antenna, not including the antenna, is known as what? (choose two)
*d. Intentional radiator
45) The highest RF signal strength that is transmitted from an antenna is known as what?
*a. Equivalent isotropically radiated power
46) Select the units of power. (choose three)
47) Select the units of comparison (relative). (Choose all that apply).
48) 2 dBd is equal to how many dBi?
*c. 4.14 dBi
49) 23 dBm is equal to how many mW?
*a. 200 mW
50) A wireless bridge is configured to transmit at 100 mW. The antenna cable and connection produce a 3 dB loss and are connected to a 16 dBi antenna. What is the EIRP?
*c. 2,000 mW
51) A WLAN transmitter that emits a 400 mW signal is connected to a cable with a 9 dB loss. If the cable is connected to an antenna with 19 dBi of gain, what is the EIRP?
*a. 4 W
52) WLAN vendors use RSSI thresholds to trigger which radio card behaviors?
*d. Dynamic rate switching
53) Received signal strength indicator (RSSI) metrics are used by 802.11 radios to define which RF characteristics? (Choose all that apply.)
*a. Signal strength
54) dBi is a measure of what?
*b. The signal increase caused by the antenna
55) Which of the following are valid calculations when using the rule of 10s and 3s? (choose two)
*a. For every 3 dB of gain (relative), double the absolute power (mW).
*b. For every 10 dB of loss (relative), divide the absolute power (mW by a factor of 10.
56) A WLAN transmitter that emits a 100 mW signal is connected to a cable with a 3 dB loss. If the cable is connected to an antenna with 7 dBi of gain, what is the EIRP at the antenna element?
*b. 250 mW
57) In a normal wireless bridged network, the greatest loss of signal is caused by what component?
*d. Free space path loss
58) To double the distance of a signal, the EIRP must be increased by how many dBs?
*b. 6 dB
*d. Plan for coverage cells with a 5 dB fade margin.
60) Which value should not be used to compare wireless network cards manufactured by different companies?
61) Which of the following devices produce active gain? (choose two)
*a. RF transceiver
62) The azimuth chart represents a view of an antenna's radiation from which direction?
63) What is the definition of the horizontal beamwidth of an antenna?
*c. The distance between the two -3 dB power points on the horizontal axis, measured in degrees
64) Which antennas are highly-directional? (choose two)
*d. Parabolic dish
65) Semi-directional antennas are often used for which of the following purposes? (choose three)
*a. Providing short-distance point-to-point communications
*c. Connecting to an access point for indoor point-to-multipoint communications
*d. Reducing reflections and the negative effects of multipath
66) The Fresnel zone should not be blocked by more than what percentage to maintain a reliable communications link?
*b. 40 percent
67) The size of the Fresnel zone is controlled by what factors? (choose two)
68) When a long-distance point-to-point link is installed, earth bulge should be considered beyond what distance?
*b. 7 miles
*a. The administrator installed a shorter cable
*c. The administrator installed a higher-grade cable
70) Which of the following are true for antenna diversity? (choose two)
*c. The transceiver samples both antennas and only receives data from one antenna at a time
*d. Transceivers can transmit from only one of the antennas at a time
71) In order to establish a 4-mile point-point bridge link in the 2.4 GHz ISM band, what factors should be taken under consideration? (Choose two that apply.)
*a. Fresnel zone with 40 percent or less blockage
*d. Proper choice of semidirectional antennas
72) The ratio between the maximum peak voltage and minimum voltage on a line is known as what?
73) What are some of the possible negative effects of an impendence mismatch? (Choose three that apply.)
*c. Erratic signal strength
*d. Decreased signal amplitude
*e. Amplifier/transmitter failure
74) When determining the mounting height of a long-distance point-to-point antenna, which of the following needs to be considered? (choose four)
*d. Earth bulge
*f. RF line of sight
75) Which of the following are true about cables? (choose two)
*a. They cause impedance on the signal
*d. They add loss to the signal
76) Amplifiers can be purchased with which of the following features? (choose all that apply)
*a. Bidirectional amplification
*b. Unidirectional amplification
*c. Fixed gain
*d. Fixed output
77) The signal between the transceiver and the antenna will be reduced by which of the following methods? (choose three)
*a. Adding an attenuator
*b. Increasing the length of the cable
*d. Using cheaper-quality cable
78) Lightning arrestors will defend against which of the following?
*c. Transient currents
79) The radius of the second Fresnel zone is _______________. (choose two)
*a. Out of phase with the point source
*d. Larger than the first Fresnel zone
80) While aligning a directional antenna, you notice that the signal drops as you turn the antenna away from the other antenna, but then it increases a little. This increase in signal is caused by what?
81) An ERP network mandates support for which two spread spectrum technologies? (Choose two that apply.)
82) The 802.11-2007 standard using an ERP-DSS/CCK radio supports which data rates?
*e. 1, 2, 5.5, and 11 Mbps
83) Which types of devices were defined in a legacy 802.11 WLAN network? (choose three)
*b. Clause 15 DSSS
*d. 16 IR
*e. Clause 14 FHSS
84) The 802.11F recommended practice requires the use of which protocol?
85) A robust security network (RSN) requires the use of which security mechanisms? (Choose two that apply.)
86) An 802.11a radio card can transmit on ______________ frequency and uses _______________ spread spectrum technology.
*d. 5 GHz, OFDM
87) What are the required data rates of an OFDM station?
*d. 6, 12, and 24 Mbps
88) When implementing an 802.1X/EAP RSN network with a VoWiFi solution, what is needed to avoid latency issues?
*b. Fast BSS Transition
89) The original 802.11 standard requires which data rates?
*c. 1 and 2 Mbps
90) What is the primary reason that 802.11a radio cards cannot communicate with 802.11g radio cards?
*d. 802.11a operates at 5 GHz and 802.11g operates at 2.4 GHz
91) What two technologies are used to prevent 802.11 radios from interfering with radar transmissions at 5 GHz? (Choose two that apply.)
*a. Dynamic frequency selection
*e. Transmit power control
92) Which 802.11 draft amendment gives network administrators the ability to configure client stations wirelessly from a central point of management?
93) As defined by the various 802.11-2007 amendments, which equipment is compatible? (choose three)
*a. 802.11g and 802.11b
*d. 802.11a and 802.11h
*e. 802.11/DSSS and 802.11b
94) Maximum bandwidth rates of _________ are permitted using OFDM radios.
*d. 54 Mbps
95) What are the security options available as defined in IEEE Std. 802.11-1999 (R2003)? (choose three)
*b. Open System authentication
*d. Shared Key authentication
96) The 802.11u draft amendment is also known as __________.
*a. Wireless Inter Working with External Networks (WIEN)
97) The 802.11-2007 standard defines which two technologies for quality of service (QoS) in a WLAN? (Choose two)
*c. Hybrid Coordination Function Controlled Channel Access
98) The 802.11h amendment (now part of the 802.11-2007 standard) introduced what two major changes for 5 GHz radios?
*a. UNII-2 Extended
*c. Radar detection
99) The 802.11b amendment defines the _____________ PHY.
100) Which layers of the OSI model are referenced in the 802.11 standard? (choose two)
101) Which of the following are valid ISM bands? (choose three)
*a. 902-928 MHz
*b. 2.4-2.4835 GHz
*d. 5.725-5.875 GHz
102) Which of the following are valid UNII bands? (choose three)
*a. 5.150-5.250 GHz
*b. 5.47-5.725 GHz
*c. 5.725-5.825 GHz
103) Which technologies are used in the 2.4 GHz ISM band? (Choose all that apply)
104) 802.11 draft (HT clause 20 radios) can transmit in which frequency bands? (Choose three that apply)
*a. 2.4-2.4835 GHz
*b. 5.47-5.725 GHz
*d. 5.15-5.25 GHz
105) In North America, the 802.11 standard designates what frequency space for use of FHSS transmissions?
*b. 2.402 GHz - 2.480 GHz
106) The original 802.11 amendment requires how much separation between center frequencies for DSSS channels to be considered non-overlapping?
*c. 30 MHz
107) The 802.11-2007 standard requires how much separation between center frequencies for HR-DSS (clause 18) channels to be considered nonoverlapping?
*b. 25 MHz
108) What best describes "hop time"?
*c. The period of time that the transmitter takes to hop to the next frequency
*b. 20 MHz
110) When deploying an ERP-OFDM wireless network with only two access points, which of these channel groupings would be considered nonoverlapping (Choose two)
*c. Channels 3 and 8
*d. Channels 5 and 11
111) Which spread spectrum technology specifies data rates of 22 Mbps and 33 Mbps?
112) If data is corrupted by previous data from a reflected signal, this is known as what?
113) Assuming all channels are supported by a 5 GHz access point, how many possible channels can be configured on the access point?
114) Which of these technologies is the most resilient against the negative effects of multipath?
115) HR-DSSS (clause 18) calls for data of 5.5 Mbps and 11 Mbps. What is the average amount of aggregate throughput percentage at any data rate?
*c. 50 percent
116) In an FHSS system, throughput can be increased by which of the following?
*c. Lengthening the dwell time and shortening the hop time
117) With the center frequency of channel 1 at 2.412 GHz, what is the center frequency of channel 2?
*b. 2.417 GHz
118) What are the modulation types used by OFDM technology? (choose two)
119) The Barker Code converts a bit of data into a series of bits that are referred to as what?
120) OFDM uses how many 312.5 KHz subcarriers for transmitting data?
121) An 802.11 wireless network name is which type of address? (choose two)
*e. Extended service set identifier
122) Which two 802.11 topologies require the use of an access point? (choose two)
*c. Basic service set
123) The 802.11 standard defines which medium to be used in a distribution system (DS)?
*e. None of the above
124) Which option is a wireless computer topology used for communication of computer devices within close proximity of a person?
125) Support for roaming is required under the 802.11 standard. Which 802.11 service set may allow for roaming?
126) What factors might affect the size of a BSA coverage area of an access point?(Choose three)
*a. Antenna gain
*c. Transmission power
*d. Indoor/outdoor surroundings
127) What is the default configuration mode that allows an AP radio to operate in a basic service set?
128) Which terms describe an 802.11 topology involving STAs but no access points? (choose three)
129) STAs operating in infrastructure mode may communicate in which of the following scenarios? (choose two)
*a. 802.11 frame exchanges with other STAs via an AP
*d. Upper-layered frame exchanges with network devices on the DSM
130) What are the only three topologies defined by the 802.11 standard? (choose three)
*b. Extended service set
131) Which wireless topology provides citywide wireless coverage?
132) At which layer of the OSI model will a BSSID address be used?
133) The basic service set identifier address can be found in which topologies? (choose three)
134) 802.11 wireless networking will not scale appropriately to accommodate which wireless topology?
135) Which wired network hardware devices do access points most resemble? (choose two)
136) What are some nonstandard modes in which an AP radio may be configured? (choose three)
137) A network consisting of clients and two or more access points connected by an 802.3 Ethernet backbone is one example of which 802.11 topology? (choose two)
*c. Extended service set
138) What term best describes two access points communicating with each other wirelessly while also allowing clients to communicate through the access point?
139) What components make up a distribution system? (choose two)
*b. Distribution system services
140) What type of wireless topology is defined by the 802.11 standard?
141) DCF is also known as what? (choose two)
*b. Carrier Sense Multiple Access with Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA)
*d. Distributed Coordination Function
142) 802.11 collision detection is handled using which technology?
*e. Positive collision detection cannot be determined
143) ACK and CTS frames can follow which interframe space?
144) The Carrier Sense portion of CSMA/CA is performed using which of the following methods? (choose three)
*a. Virtual carrier-sense
*b. Physical carrier-sense
*d. Clear channel assessment
145) After the station has performed the carrier sense and determined that no other devices are transmitting for a period of a DIFS interval, the next step is for the station to do what?
*c. Select a random backoff value
*d. Infrastructure mode
147) Which of the following terms are affiliated with the virtual carrier-sense mechanism? (choose two)
*b. Network allocation vector
*d. Duration/ID field
148) Which of the following statements are about PCF are true? (choose three)
*a. PCF will work in only a BSS.
*c. Both the station and access point must support PCF for it to be used.
*d. The access point will alternate between PCF and DCF mode.
149) CSMA/CA and DCF define which mechanisms to ensure that only one 802.11 radio can transmit on the half-duplex RF medium? (Choose four)
*a. Random back-off timer
*e. Interframe spacing
150) The Wi-Fi Alliance certification called Wi-Fi Multimedia (WMM) is based on which media access method defined by the 802.11-2007 standard?
151) Hybrid Coordination Function (HCF) defines what allotted period of time in which a station can transmit multiple frames?
152) Currently, WMM is based on EDCA and provides for traffic prioritization via which of the following access categories? (Choose four)
*a. WMM Voice priority
*b. WMM Video priority
*d. WMM Best Effort priority
*e. WMM Background priority
153) The 802.11e amendment (now part of the 802.11-2007 standard) defines which of the following medium access methods to support QoS requirements? (Choose three)
*b. Enhanced Distributed Channel Access (EDCA)
*c. hybrid Coordination Function (HCF)
*e. Hybrid Coordination Function Controlled Access (HCCA)
154) What information that comes from the wired side network is used to assign traffic into access categories on a WLAN controller?
*c. 802.1D priority tags
155) What are the two reasons that 802.11 radios use physical carrier-sense? (Choose two)
*a. Synchronize incoming transmissions
*e. Assess the RF medium
156) What CSMA/CA mechanism is used for medium contention? (choose two)
*d. Random Back-off timer*e. Contention Window
157) Which field in the MAC header of an 802.11 frame resets the NAV timer for all listening 802.11 stations?
158) The EDCA medium access method provides for the prioritization of traffic via priority tags that are identical to the 802.1D priority tags. What are the EDCA priority tags known as?
*b. UP levels
159) ACKS are required for which of the following frames?
160) What QoS mechanism can be used to reduce medium contention overhead during a frame burst of low-latency traffic?
*e. Immediate Block ACK
161) What is the difference between association frames and reassociation frames? (Choose two)
*b. Reassociation frames are only used in fast BSS transition.
*d. Reassociation frames contain the BSSID of the original AP.
162) Which of the following contains the information found inside an IP packet?
163) Which of the following are protection mechanisms? (choose two)
164) The presence of what type of transmissions can trigger the protection mechanism within an ERP basic service set? (Choose three)
*a. Association of an HR-DSSS client
*c. HR-DSSS beacon frame
*d. ERP beacon frame with the NonERP_Present bit set to 1
165) Which of the following information is included in a probe response frame? (Choose four)
*a. Time stamp
*b. Supported data rates
*c. Service set capabilities
166) Which of the following are true about beacon management frames? (Choose two)
*b. Time-stamp information is used by the clients to synchronize their clocks.
*d. Beacons can contain vendor-proprietary information.
167) After a station sees its AID in the TIM, what typically is the next frame that the station transmits?
168) When a station sends an RTS, the Duration/ID field notifies the other stations that they must set their NAV timers to which of the following values?
*d. The time necessary to transmit the CTS, DATA, and ACK frames
169) How does a client station indicate that it is using Power Save mode?
*b. It transmit a frame to the access point with the Power Management field set to 1.
170) What would cause an 802.11 station to retransmit a unicast frame? (Choose two)
*a. The transmitted unicast frame was corrupted.
*b. The ACK frame from the receiver was corrupted.
171) If a station is in Power Save mode, how does it know that the AP has buffered unicast frames waiting for it?
*b. By examining the TIM field
172) When is an ERP (802.11g) access point required by the IEEE 802.11-2007 standard to respond to probe request frames from nearby HR-DSSS (802.11b) stations? (Choose two)
*a. When the probe request frames contain a null SSID value
*e. When the probe request frames contain the correct SSID value.
173) Which of the following are true about scanning? (Choose two)
*a. There are two types of scanning: passive and active.
*d. It is common for stations to continue to send probe requests after being associated to an access point.
174) Which of the following 802.11 frames carry an MSDU payload that may eventually be transferred by the integration service into an 802.3 Ethernet frame?
*c. 802.11 data frames
175) When a client station is first powered on, what is the order of frames generated by the client station and access point?
*b. Probe request, probe response, authentication request/response, association request/response
176) WLAN users have recently complained about gaps in audio and problems with the push-to-talk capabilities of the ACME Company's VoWiFi phones. What could be the cause of this problem?
*b. Misconfigured DTIM setting
*a. The WLAN admin disable the 1, 2, 5.5, and 11 Mbps data rates on the controller.
*c. The WLAN admin enabled the 6 and 9 Mbps data rates on the controller as basic rates.
178) In a multiple-channel architecture, roaming is controlled by the client station and occurs based on a set of proprietary rules determined by the manufacturer of the wireless radio. Which of the following parameters are often used when making the decision to roam? (Choose two)
*a. Received signal level
179) What are some of the advantages of using U-APSD and WMM-PS power management over legacy power-management methods? (Choose four)
*a. Applications control doze time and trigger frames.
*c. The client does not have to wait for a beacon.
*d. Downlink traffic is sent in a frame burst
*e. Data frames are used as trigger frames. PS-Poll frames are not used.
180) WMM-PS is based on which 802.11-2007 power management method?
181) A WNMS server can be used to manage what kind of devices? (Choose two)
*a. Autonomous APs
*e. WLAN controllers
182) How many root bridges exist in a point-to-multipoint bridge link?
183) Which radio formats can be used by 802.11 technology?
*g. All of the above
184) What 802.11 infrastructure devices are capable of participating in a WLAN by busing distributed data forwarding (DDF) at various network layers? (choose three)
*b. Core layer WLAN controller
*c. Distribution layer WLAN controller*e. Hybrid access point
185) What features can be found on a WLAN controller? (choose four)
*b. Captive portal
*e. Wireless Intrusion Detection System
186) What protocols are used to transport 802.11 frames between a lightweight AP and a WLAN controller? (choose two)
187) What devices can be used to manage multiple autonomous access points from a centralized location?
188) What are some of the common capabilities of a WLAN controller architecture?
*f. All of the above
189) Which option best describes a layer 3 device used to secure a Internet connection for a small number of wireless users?
*d. Residential wireless gateway
190) Which option best describes a device used to provide wireless connectivity for a small number of wired clients?
*b. Wireless workgroup bridge
191) Which terms best describe components of a centralized WLAN architecture in which all the intelligence resides in a centralized device and pushes the configuration settings down to the access point? (choose two)
*a. WLAN controller
*e. Lightweight AP
192) A ______________________ uses a proprietary layer 2 roaming protocol, and a __________________ utilizes a proprietary layer 2 encryption.
*a. Wireless mesh access point, enterprise encryption gateway
193) A network administrator is having a hard time getting two WLAN bridges to associate with one another in a PtP link. The bridge in Building A is on the 172.16.1.0/24 network, while the bridge in Building B resides on the 172.16.2.0/24 network. What is the most likely cause?
*b. The bridges are both configured as non-root
194) Billy wants Building A via a WLAN bridge link to Building C, which is 30 miles away. Cannot make a direct connect of that distance due to reg power restrictions in country. Building B is between the two remote buildings. What is the best way to link the two buildings using WLAN bridges?
*d. Place a root bridge on Building A with a highly-directional antenna and a non-root bridge on Building B with a highly-directional antenna. Set up another root brige on Building B with a highly-directional antenna and a non-root bridge on Building C with a highly-directional antenna. Connect the two bridges on Building B via a switch or router.
195) On which device can you configure VLANs? (choose two)
*c. Ethernet switch
*d. WLAN controller
196) What term best describes a WLAN architecture where the integration service (IS) and distribution system servises (DSS) are handled by a WLAN controller while generation of certain 802.11 management and control frames are handled by a lightweight AP?
*e. Split MAC
197) What options best describe components of a WLAN intelligent edge architecture? (choose two)
*b. Autonomous AP
*d. VPN router
198) What would be needed for multiple basic service sets (BSSs) to exist within the same coverage area of a single access point and in which all the client stations would be segmented in separate layer 2/3 domains but all communicate within a single layer 1 RF domain?
*a. Virtual BSSIDs
199) What are some of the parameters of a WLAN profile that can be configured on a WLAN controller? (Choose four)
200) What are the required components of a VoWiFi architecture using WMM quality-of-service mechanisms? (Choose four)
*a. VoWiFi phone
*b. WLAN controller
*d. Lightweight access point
201) Which of the following are objectives of fixed mobile convergence? (Choose three)
*a. Single telephone number
*b. Single device
*d. always use the lowest-cost network
202) Which of the following is another form of a public hotspot network? (Choose two)
*c. Transportation network
*d. Municipal network
203) Which type of organization often has a person responsible for keeping track of frequency usage inside the organization?
204) On which of these transportation networks is satellite a functional solution for providing uplink to the Internet?
*d. Cruise Ship
205) Fixed mobile convergence provides roaming across which of the following wireless technologies? (Choose two)
*d. Cellular phone
206) Which of the following is typically the most important design criteria when designing a warehouse WLAN?
207) Corporations typically install wireless networks to provide which of the following capabilities? (Choose two)
*a. Easy mobility for the wireless user within the corporate building or campus environment
*d. The ability to add network access in areas where installation of wired connections is difficult or expensive
208) Last-mile Internet service is provided by which of the following? (Choose three)
*a. Telephone company
*c. Cable provider
209) Which of the following is the main purpose of a SOHO 802.11 network?
*b. Internet gateway
210) Which of the following are examples of mobile office networking? (Choose three)
*a. Construction-site offices
*b. Temporary disaster-assistance office
*d. Temporary classrooms
211) Warehousing and manufacturing environments typically have which of the following requirements? (Choose two)
*d. High coverage
212) Which of the following is least likely to be offered by a hotspot provider?
*d. Data encryption
213) Which of the following are good uses for mobile networks? (Choose three)
*a. Military maneuvers
*b. Disaster relief
*c. Construction sites
214) Which of the following terms refer to the same network design? (Choose three)
*c. Hub and spoke
215) Most early deployments of 802.11 FHSS were used in which type of environment?
*c. Industrial (warehousing and manufacturing)
216) When using a hotspot, you should do which of the following to ensure security back to your corporate network?
*c. Use an IPSec VPN
217) What are some popular 802.11 applications used in the healthcare industry? (Choose three)
*d. Patient monitoring
218) Multiple point-to-point bridges between the same locations are often installed for which of the following reasons? (Choose two)
*a. To provide higher throughput
*c. To prevent single point of failure
219) What are some of the key concerns of healthcare providers when installing a wireless network? (Choose three)
*a. RF interference
*b. Faster access to patient data
*c. Secure and accurate access
220) Public hotspots typically provide which of the following security features?
221) What type of solution must be deployed to provide continuous connectivity when a client station roams across layer 3 boundaries? (choose two)
*b. Proprietary layer 3 roaming solution
*d. Mobile IP solution
222) If the access points transmit on the same frequency channel in an MCA architecture, what type of interference is caused by overlapping coverage cells?
*e. Co-channel interference
223) What variables might affect range in an 802.11 WLAN? (choose three)
*a. Transmission power
*d. Antenna gain
*e. Physical environment
224) What can be done to fix the hidden node problem? (choose three)
*b. Move the hidden node station
*c. Increase power on all client stations
*d. Remove the obstacle
225) Layer 2 retransmissions occur when frames become corrupted. What are some of the causes of layer 2 retries? (Choose four)
*b. Low SNR
*d. RF interference
*e. Adjacent cell interference
226) What scenarios might result in a hidden node problem? (choose all that apply)
*a. Distributed antenna system
*b. Too large coverage cell
*d. Physical obstacle
227) What are some of the negative effects of layer 2 retransmissions? (Choose three)
*b. Excessive MAC sublayer overhead
*d. Increased latency
228) Users are complaining that their VoWiFi phones lose connect.. The WLAN admin notices that the frame transm. of the phones are corrupt when listened to with an analyzer near the AP, but are not corrupt when listened to with the analyzer near the phone. What is the cause of this problem?
*e. Mismatched power settings
229) A user is complaining that her VoWiFi has choppy audio. The admin notices that the user's MAC has a retry rate of 25% when observed with an analyzer. However, all the other users have a retry rate of about 5 percent when also observed with the analyzer. Why?
*d. Hidden node
230) What type of interference is caused by overlapping frequencies within overlapping coverage cells?
*e. Co-channel interference
231) Based on RSSI metrics, concentric zones of variable data rate coverage exist around an access point due to the upshifting and downshifting of client stations between data rates. What is the correct name of this process, according to the IEEE 802.11-2007 standard?
*b. Dynamic rate switching
232) Which of these weather conditions is a concern when deploying a long-distance point-to-point bridge link?
*e. All of the above
233) What variables might affect range in an 802.11 WLAN? (choose all that apply)
*e. All of the above
234) Which WLAN architecture can use the 40 MHz OFDM channel capabilities of an 802.11n access point in the 2.4 GHz ISM band?
*b. Single channel architecture
235) Which of the following can cause roaming problems? (choose two)
*a. Too little cell coverage overlap
*b. Too much cell coverage overlap
236) What are some problems that can occur when an access point is transmitting at full power?(choose three)
*a. Hidden node
*c. Co-channel interference
*d. Mismatched power between the AP and the clients
237) Why would a WLAN network administrator consider disabling the two lowest rates on an 802.11b/g access point? (choose all that apply)
*a. Medium contention
*c. Hidden node
238) Which type of interference is caused by multipath?
*a. Inter-symbol interference
239) In a multiple channel architecture (MCA) design, what is the greatest number of non-overlapping channels that can be deployed in the 2.4 GHz ISM band?
240) Colocating access points in the same physical space is one method of meeting capacity needs. Colocation scales best in the enterprise using which WLAN architecture?
*b. Single channel architecture
241) What WLAN security mechanism requires that each WLAN user has unique authentication credentials?
242) Which wireless security standards and certifications call for the use of CCMP/AES encryption? (Choose all that apply.)
243) 128-bit WEP encryption uses a user-provided static key of what size?
*e. 104 bits
244) What three main components constituent an 802.1X/EAP framework? (Choose all that apply.)
*c. Authentication server
245) The 802.11 legacy standard defines which wireless security solution?
*c. 64-bit static WEP
246) Jimmy hired as a consult to secure the Donahue Corporation’s WLAN. He has been asked to choose a solution that will both protect the company’s equipment from theft and protect the AP’s configinterfaces from outside attackers. What recommends would you make? (Choose all that apply.)
*a. Mounting all access points in lockable enclosure units
*d. Configuring access points from the wired side using HTTPS or Secure Command Shell
247) Which security solutions may be used to segment a wireless LAN? (Choose all that apply.)
248) What wireless security solutions are defined by Wi-Fi Protected Access? (Choose all that apply.)
*a. Passphrase authentication
249) Name the three main components of a role-based access control solution.
250) What does 802.1X/EAP provide when implemented for WLAN security? (Choose all that apply.)
*a. Access to network resources
*d. Dynamic encryption-key generation
*e. Verification of user credentials
251) Which technologies use the RC4 cipher? (Choose all that apply.)
*a. Static WEP
*b. Dynamic WEP
252) What must occur before dynamic TKIP/RC4 or CCMP/AES encryption keys are generated? (Choose all that apply.)
*b. 801.1x/EAP authentication and 4-Way Handshake
*d. PSK authentication and 4-Way Handshake
253) For an 802.1X/EAP solution to work properly, which two components must both support the same type of EAP protocol? ( Choose two.)
*d. Authentication server
254) When using an 802.11 wireless controller solution, which device would be considered the authenticator?
*d. WLAN controller
255) Identify some aspects of the Temporal Key Integrity Protocol. (Choose all that apply.)
*a. 128-bit temporal key
*c. Message Integrity Check
*d. 48-bit IV
256) In a point-to-point bridge environment where 802.1X/EAP is used for bridge authentication, what device in the network acts as the 802.1X supplicant?
*a. Nonroot bridge
257) CCMP encryption uses which AES key size?
*d. 128 bits
258) Identify the security solutions that are defined by WPA2. (Choose all that apply.)
*a. 802.1X/EAP authentication
*d. Passphrase authentication
259) The IEEE 802.11-2007 standard mandates ______ encryption for robust security network associations and optional use of ______ encryption.
260) Which layer 2 protocol is used for authentication in an 802.1X framework?
*c. Extensible Authentication Protocol
261) Which of these attacks are considered denial of service attacks? (Choose two that apply.)
*c. Deauthenication spoofing
262) Which of these attacks would be considered malicious eavesdropping? (Choose two that apply.)
*c. Protocol analyzer capture
*d. Packet reconstruction
263) Which of these attacks will not be detected by a wireless instruction detection system (WIDS)?
*d. Protocol analyzer
264) Which of these attacks can be mitigated with a mutual authentication solution? (Choose two that apply.)
*d. Wireless hijacking
265) Name two types of rogue devices that cannot be detected by current layer 2 wireless intrusion prevention systems (WIPS).
*a. 900 MHz radio
*c. FHSS radio
266) When designing a wireless policy document, what two major areas of policy should be addressed?
*a. General policy
*b. Functional policy
267) What can happen when an intruder compromises the pre-shared key used during WPA/WPA2 Personal authentication? (Choose two that apply.)
*e. Access to network resources
268) Which of these attacks are considered layer 2 denial of service attacks? (Choose four that apply.)
*a. Deauthentication spoofing
*c. Virtual carrier attacks
*d. PS-Poll floods
*e. Authentication floods
269) Which of these can cause unintentional RF jamming attacks against an 802.11 wireless network? (Choose all that apply.)
*a. Microwave oven
*c. 2.4 GHz cordless phones
270) Which of these tools will best detect frequency hopping rogue devices? (Choose all that apply.)
*a. Stand-alone spectrum analyzer
*b. Distributed spectrum analyzer
271) Name two solutions that can help to mitigate peer-to-peer attacks from other clients that are associated to the same 802.11 access point?
*a. Personal firewall
272) What type of solution can be used to perform countermeasures against a rogue access point?
273) Name the four labels that a WIPS uses to classify an 802.11 device.
274) Scott is an administrator at the Williams Lumber Company and his WIPS has detected a rogue access point. What actions should he take after discovering the rogue AP? (Choose the best two answers.)
*a. Enable the layer 2 rogue containment feature that his WIPS provides
*e. Unplug the rogue AP from the data port upon discovery
275) Which of these attacks are wireless users susceptible to at a public access hotspot? (Choose five that apply.)
*a. Wi-Fi phishing
*c. Peer-to-peer attack
*d. Malicious eavesdropping
*g. Wireless hijacking
276) Name two components that should be mandatory in every remote access wireless security policy.
*a. IPSec VPN
*c. Personal firewall
277) MAC filters are typically considered useless in most cases because of what type of attack?
278) WLAN controllers typically deploy which type of WIDS deployment model?
279) Which of these encryption technologies have currently been cracked? (Choose three that apply.)
*a. 64-bit WEP
*d. 128-bit WEP
*e. Wired Equivalent Privacy
280) What is another name for a wireless hijacking attack?
*d. Evil twin
281) You have been hired by the XYZ Company for a wireless site survey. Which statements best describe site survey best practices when choosing vendor equipment to be used during the survey? (Choose two answers.)
*c. When conducting a wireless site survey with a WLAN controller, you should use a WLAN controller and thin access points from the same vendor.
*d. When conducting a wireless site survey with fat access points, you should use fat access points from the same vendor.
282) Name a unique consideration when deploying a wireless network in a hotel or other hospitality business? (Choose the best answer.)
283) Which of the following statements best describe security considerations during a wireless site survey? (Choose three that apply.)
*a. Questions will be asked to define the customer’s security expectations.
*b. Wireless security recommendations will be made after the survey.
*c. Recommendations about wireless security policies may also be made.
*c. Create three separate VLANS. Segment the data clients, VoIP phones and guest users into three distinct VLANs. Use an 802.1X/EAP authentication with CCMP/AES encryption for security in the data VLAN. Use WPA2-Personal in the voice VLAN. The guest VLAN will have no security other than possibly a captive portal.
285) What are some additional recommendations that can be made along with the final site survey report? (Choose two that apply.)
*a. Training recommendations
*b. Security recommendations
286) What documents might be needed prior to an indoor site survey? (Choose two).
*c. Network topology map
287) What roaming issues should be discussed during an interview for a future VoWiFi network? (Choose two that apply.)
*b. Layer 3 boundaries
288) You have been hired by the Barry Corporation to conduct an indoor site survey. What information will be in the final site survey report that is delivered? (Choose three that apply.)
*a. AP placement
*d. Access point transmit power settings
*e. Antenna orientation
289) The Kellum Corporation has hired you to troubleshoot an existing WLAN. The end users are reporting having difficulties when roaming. What are two possible causes?
*b. The RF coverage cells have only 5 percent overlap. Fifteen to 20 percent cell overlap is normally needed for seamless roaming.
290) After conducting a site survey in the building where your company is on the fifth floor, you have discovered that other businesses are also operating APs on nearby floors on channels 2 and 8. What is the best recommendation to management about deploying a WLAN for your company?
*d. Recommend installing a 5 GHz access point.
291) The Harkins Corporation has hired you to make recommendations about a future WLAN that will require over 300 APs to meet all coverage requirements. What is the most cost-efficient and practical recommendation in regard to providing electrical power to the access points?
*a. Recommend that the customer replace older edge switches with new switches with inline PoE.
292) The Chang Company has hired you to troubleshoot an existing 802.11b/g WLAN. The end users are reporting having difficulties with throughput performance. What are some of the possible causes of the difficulties? (Choose three that apply.)
*a. Multipath interference
*b. Co-channel interference
*d. Inadequate capacity planning
293) What factors need to be considered when planning for capacity in a 5 GHz WLAN? (Choose three that apply.)
*a. Data applications
*b. User density
*c. Peak usage level
294) During the interview process, which topic(s) will be discussed so that the WLAN will integrate properly into the existing wired architecture?
*e. All of the above
295) The Jackson County Regional Hospital has hired you for a wireless site survey. Prior to the site survey, employees from which departments at the hospital should be consulted? (Choose three that apply.)
*a. Network management
*b. Biomedical department
*c. Hospital security
296) Typically what are the biggest concerns when planning for a WLAN in a warehouse environment? (Choose three that apply.)
297) What type of hardware may be necessary when installing APs to be used for outdoor wireless coverage?
*a. NEMA enclosure
298) What is a telecommunications unit of measurement of traffic equal to one hour of telephone traffic in one hour of time?
299) What additional documentation is normally provided along with the final site survey deliverable? (Choose three that apply.)
*a. Bill of materials
*b. Implementation diagrams
*d. Project schedule and costs
e. Access point user manuals
300) BYU-Idaho has hired you to make recommendations about deploying wireless hotspots in 100 areas across the campus. What solutions might you recommend? (Choose all that apply.)
*c. 802.11b/g access point at 1 to 5 mW transmit power
*e. Captive portal authentication
301) The Crocker company has generated a visual model of RF coverage for their building by using predictive modeling site survey software. The next step requires validation with a manual site survey. What modeling parameters should be validated during the manual site survey?
*a. AP placement and power settings
*c. Coverage boundaries
302) Which potential regional weather conditions can adversely affect an outdoor wireless bridge link and should be noted during an outdoor site survey? (Choose two that apply.)
303) Name the major types of coverage analysis site surveys. (Choose three that apply.)
304) ACME Hospital uses a COTM system in the cardiac care unit. Management wants the application available on a WLAN. Uptime is critical. What should the site survey engineer be looking for that might cause a loss of communication over the WLAN? (Choose three that apply.)
*a. Medical equipment interference
*b. Safety glass
*e. Elevator shafts
305) Which type of coverage analysis requires a radio card to be associated to an access point?
306) Which of the following tools can be used in an indoor site survey? (Choose three that apply.)
*a. Measuring wheel
*d. Battery pack
307) Which of the following tools might be used in an outdoor site survey used to provide outdoor coverage? (Choose all that apply.)
*a. Spectrum Analyzer
*b. NEMA grade access point
*c. Outdoor blueprints or topography map
*d. Mesh routers
308) Name two potential sources of interference in the 5 GHz UNII band.
*b. Cordless phones
309) Which of these measurements are taken during passive manual site survey? (Choose two that apply.)
310) Mr. Cherry is the SS engineer for the ACME Corp. Because of the latency, he is concerned about L. 2 retransmissions. A SS has found no sources of RF inter. During active survey he finds a L. 2 retry rate above 15% in some areas of the facility but not others. Why layer 2 retrans?
311) Name the necessary calculations for an outdoor bridging survey under five miles? (Choose four that apply.)
*a. Link budget
*b. Free space path loss
*c. Fresnel zone
*d. Fade margin
312) Name potential sources of interference that might be found during a 2.4GHz site survey. (Choose four that apply.)
*b. Nearby 802.11 FHSS access point
*c. Plasma cutter
*d. Bluetooth headset
*e. 2.4 GHz video camera
313) Which of the following tools can be used in an indoor 802.11 site survey? (Choose four that apply.)
*a. Multiple antennas
*c. Client adapter
*d. Access point
*e. Floor plan map
314) Williams is a SS engineer who is planning to deploy a wlan solution with dual-radio, dual-frequency lightweight APs. The employees will be on the 5GHz network and the guest users will be on the 2.4GHz network. CCMP/AES encryption for the employees, WEP for guests. Choices(2).
*b. Install the thin access points in a grid and conduct an assisted site survey for both networks.
*e. Conduct manual coverage analysis for the 5GHz network first and then conduct manual coverage analysis for the 2.4 GHz network based on teh AP placement of the 5GHz APs.
315) Bob has to perform a site survey for a WLAN by using a multiple channel architecture (MCA) system in a 20-story building with multiple tenants. What should Bob consider during the planning and implementation stages of the site survey? (Choose two that apply.)
*a. Other tenants' WLANs
*e. The cell coverage of each access point should extend to only one floor above and one floor below to create a three-dimensional channel reuse pattern.
316) Which of the following tools may be found within an indoor site survey kit? (Choose three that apply.)
*a. Digital camera
*b. Colored electrical tape
*e. Temporary mounting gear
317) Turner is a SS engineer who has to deploy eighty 2.4 GHz lightweight APs in a warehouse with long corridors and metal racks. A controller will be used to manage all the APs. Six hundred bar code scanners will be used in the warehouse withWPA2-Personal for security. Most important tool?
*b. Directional antennas
318) What access point settings should be recorded during manual coverage analysis? (Choose two that apply.)
*a. Power settings
*d. Channel setting
319) Which type of manual coverage analysis does not requires a radio card to be associated to an access point?
320) Which type of site survey uses modeling algorithms and attenuation values to create visual models of RF coverage cells?
321) The IEEE 802.3af amendment has been incorporated into the IEEE Std. 802.3-2005 revised standard and is defined in which clause?
*d. Clause 33
322) If a classification signature is not provided, the device is considered to be in what class?
323) Which types of PoE devices are defined by the standard? (Choose two that apply)
*d. 57 volts
325) To qualify as compliant with 802.3-2005, Clause 33, a powered device (PD) must do which of the following? (Choose three that apply)
*a. Be able to accept power in either of two ways: over the data pairs or over the unused pairs.
*b. Reply to the PSE with a detection signature.
*c. Accept power with either polarity from the PSE.
326) A VoIP telephone is connected to a 24-port PoE midspan PSE. If the telephone does not provide a classification signature, how much power will the PSE provide to the telephone?
*d. 15.4 watts
327) An endpoint PSE that provides power by using Alternative B is capable of providing power to devices by using which of the following Ethernet technologies? (Choose two that apply)
328) Which of the following devices provide power over the spare pairs of the Ethernet cable?
*a. Single-port power injector
*b. Multiport power injector
*c. Midspan PSE
*d. Endpoint PSE, Alternative B
329) At maximum power requirements, a 24-port PoE Ethernet switch must be able to provide about how many total watts of power to PoE devices on all ports?
*b. 370 watts
330) If an 802.3-2005 Clause 33 access point is equipped with two radios and requires 7.5 watts of power, how much power will the PSE provide to it?
*d. 15.4 watts
331) The PSE provides power within a range of ____________ volts, with a nominal power of ________ volts.
*d. 44 to 57, 48
332) You have installed an Thernet switch that is compliant with 802.3-2005, Clause 33. You are having problems with your access points. Which of the following could be causing your problems?
*a. Many PoE VoIP telephones are connected to the same Ethernet switch.
333) You are designing an 802.3-2005 Clause 33 network and are installing a 24-port Ethernet switch to support 10 Class-1 VoIP phones and 10 Class-0 access points. The switch requires 500 watts to perform its basic switching functions. How much total power will be needed?
*b. 694 watts
334) You are designing an 802.3-2005 Clause 33 network and are installing a 24-port Ethernet switch to support 10 Class-2 cameras and 10 Class-3 access points. The switch requires 1000 watts to perform its basic switching functions. How much total power will be needed?
*b. 1,224 watts
335) When a powered device is first connected to a PSE, it presents itself as having a resistance level of what?
336) How much voltage does the PSE apply while trying to identify the detection signature?
*b. 10.1 volts
337) What is the maximum power used by a PD Class 0 device?
*c. 12.95 W
338) The PSE will apply a voltage of between 14.5 and 20.5 and measure the resulting current to determine the class of the device. Which current range represents Class 2 devices?
*e. 17 - 20 mA
339) A powered device must be capable of accepting power with either polarity from the power supply. In mode A, on which conductors/wires does the powered device accept power?
*c. 1, 2, 3, 6
340) An 802.3-2005 Clause 33 midspan PSE can be used with which of the following networking devices? (Choose two that apply)
*a. 10BaseT repeater
*b. 100BaseT layer 2 switch
341) A WLAN consultant has been asked to plan an 802.11n Greenfield deployment using dual-frequency 4×4 MIMO access points. What are the options available to provide power for the 802.1n access points? (Choose two that apply.)
*c. Proprietary PoE solution
*e. Electrical outlet power
342) How can a MIMO system increase throughput at the Physical layer? (Choose three that apply.)
*a. Spatial multiplexing
*c. Transmit beamforming
*d. 40 MHz channels
343) Which new power-management method defined by the 802.11n amendment conserves power by powering down all but one radio?
*d. SM power save
344) The guard interval is used as a buffer to compensate for what type of interference?
*e. Intersymbol interference
345) Name some of the factors that a modulation and coding scheme (MCS) uses to define data rates for an HT radio. (Choose all that apply.)
*a. Modulation method
*b. Equal/unequal modulation
*c. Number of spatial streams
*e. Channel size
346) How can an HT radio increase throughput at the MAC sublayer of the Data-Link layer? (Choose four that apply.)
347) Transmit beamforming uses what type of frames to analyze the MIMO channel before transmitting directed paths of data?
*d. Sounding frames
348) A 3×4 MIMO radio transmits how many spatial streams of unique data?
349) Name a capability not defined for A-MPDU.
*a. Multiple QoS access categories
350) Which HT protection modes allow only for the association of HT stations in the HT basic service set? (Choose three that apply.)
*a. Mode 0—Greenfield mode
*b. Mode 1—HT nonmember protection mode
*c. Mode 2—HT 20 MHz protection mode
351) Which of these capabilities are considered mandatory for the Wi-Fi Alliances vendor certification program called Wi-Fi CERTIFIED 802.11n draft 2.0? (Choose three that apply.)
*d. Two spatial streams in transmit mode
352) Which HT operational mode uses time slices to alternate between 20 MHz channel transmissions and 40 MHz transmissions?
*b. PCO mode
353) HT clause 20 radios are backward compatible with which of the following type of 802.11 radios? (Choose three that apply.)
*a. Clause 15 radios (HR-DSSS)
*b. Clause 17 radios (OFDM)
*d. Clause 19 radios (ERP)
354) Which HT operational mode is not recommended when VoWiFi phones are deployed?
*b. PCO mode
355) Which HT PPDU formats support both 20 MHz and 40 MHz channels? (Choose two that apply.)
*c. HT Mixed format
*d. HT Greenfield format
356) A WLAN consultant has recommend that a new 802.11n HT network be deployed by using channels in the 5 GHz UNII bands. Why would he recommend 5 GHz over 2.4 GHz?
*c. 40 MHz channels do not scale in the 2.4 GHz ISM band.
357) What are the benefits of using Dual-CTS protection in an HT basic service set? (Choose two that apply.)
*a. Resolves hidden node problems
*c. Prevents interference with nearby 802.11a/b/g basic service sets
358) What frequencies are defined for clause 20 HT radio transmissions? (Choose two that apply.)
*b. 2.4–2.4835 GHz
*c. 5.15–5.25 GHz
359) What PHY layer mechanism might be used to increase throughput for an HT radio in a clean RF environment with minimal reflections and low multipath?
*b. 400-nanosecond guard interval
360) What PHY layer mechanisms might be used to increase the range for a 802.11n radio using a MIMO system? (Choose two that apply.)
*a. Switched diversity
*c. Transmit beamforming
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