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Igneous rocks form from--
B.pre-existing rocks subjected to increasing heat and pressure
C.weathered debris of other rocks
D. a cooling magma
Thereddish mineral grains in the rock that makes up the steps to the library are—
a. calcite b. quartz c.plagioclase d. k-feldspar
Rockscomposed of bit and pieces of pre-existing rocks are most likely _____ in
. We have never drilled into the mantle of theearth, but we find unaltered pieces of it as ____.
a. iron meteorites b. lavas from most volcanoes
. We have never drilled into the core of theearth, but we but we can conclude what
itslike by observing—
b. iron meteorites and earthquake waves
c. spectrum of stars
d. Bowen’s Reaction Series
(t or f)The earth is uniform in composition(all the same stuff) from the center to the
. In which region ofthe United States are pedalfers most likely to form?
A. southwest U.S.
B. southeast U.S
C. extreme northeast
Which of the following is most susceptible to chemical weatheringby
A. quartz B. calcite C. clayminerals D. hematite
Feldspar weathers to _____.
A. ironoxide B. clay C.calcium carbonate
Enchanted Rock near Llano, Texas is a –
A. granite batholith
B. granite exfoliation dome
C. extinct volcano
Iron oxide is common at the surface of the earth because itforms by the
B.. iron-bearing silicates
C. clay minerals
Pillow basalt forms –
B. on the ocean floor
D. by explosive volcanism
Well-rounded and well-sorted grains in a sandstone is suggestive of—
A. transportation by glaciers
B. deep water sedimentation
C. long distance of transport
D. rapid burial
The process by which dissolved mineral matter precipitatesin the pore
spaces of a sediment and binds ittogether is—
The rock seen in road cuts in the Hill Country is–
Playa (dry) lakes of the southwest United States are sitesof deposition of–
A. varved sediments
B. thick limestone
C. ore grade iron deposits
A sedimentary “rock” formed by accumulation of altered plantremains is—
A. shale B. chert C. coal
D. oil shale
Clay particles stick together to form shales and mudstonesby—
A. compaction B. cementation
. Which of thefollowing is most likely to dissolve away in semi-humid
A. quartz B. gypsum
C.aluminum oxide D. clayminerals
Which of the following is an indication of an alternatingwet and dry
environment such as a tidal flat?
A. grainsize B. graded bedding
C.cross-bedding D. mud cracks
The most abundant mineral group at the earth’s surfaceis(are) –
A. clay-minerals B. quartz
C. feldspar D. calcite
The most common mineral in the crust of the earth is—
C. feldspar D. calcite
The grain size of igneous rocks is determined by the_________.
A. cooling rate of the magma
B. composition of the magma
C. Bowen’s Reaction Series D. amount of silica in the magma
Coquina is a rock formed of--
B. broken shell fragments
C. pebbles D. oolites
To see a fossil on campus, you would go look at…
A. thesteps to the library
B. the outer walls of the library
C. Theouter walls of Evans
D. corner of LBJ and Bob Cat Trail
Changes in sediment that occur after deposition are called—
A. maturation B. hallucination
C. .recalibration D. diagenesis
. In Hawaii, Iwould expect to see—
C. shield cones
Which metamorphic rock contains the same basic minerals asan igneous
A. gneiss B. slate
C.quartzite D. marble
Heat from an igneous intrusion is the primary agent ofchange in
A. contact B. regional
C. dynamic D.pseudomorphism
Mylonites are formed by _____ metamorphism.
A. contact B. regional C. cataclastic
Which of the following metamorphic rocks displays a foliatedtexture?
A. schist B. quartzite
C. marble D.hornfels
Which mineral would indicate the higher grade ofmetamorphism?
A. staurolite B.chlorite
C. garnet D. muscovite
A thin, discoid-shaped, discordantigneous intrusion is probably a –
A. dike B. sill C. laccolith D.stock
A sedimentary rock composed of angular pebbles is called-
A. breccia B. arkose C. conglomerate D. anglestone
Phenocrysts areevidence of--
A. rapid cooling B. explosive eruptions
C. two periods of cooling
D. rapid loss of gas from the magma
. When sea waterevaporates, the first mineral to precipitate is ______.
A. halite B. clay-minerals
C. calcite D. gypsum
_____ refers to the process of fossilization where theinternal cavities and
pores of the original organism arefilled with precipitated mineral matter.
A. carbonization B. replacement
C. petrification D. impression
Low temperatrure and high pressure metamorphism (as insubduction
zones) is the ________ facies.
A. greenschist B. whiteschist C. blueschist D.brownschist
The metamorphic rock formed from limestone is—
A.quartzite B. hornfels C.slate D. marble
. In contactmetamorphism shales are altered to –
A. marble B. slate C.hornfels D. schist
A natural glassformed by rapid cooling of lava is called --
A. rhyolite B. quartz C. tuff
Steep-sided,classic, volcanic cones are called--
A. shield cones
Pyroclastic rocksform by--
A. a lava cooling at the surface
B. violent,explosive volcanic eruptions
C. a magma cooling in the subsurface
D. two periods of cooling
Dolostone is formed by the diagenic alteration of limestoneby the addition of____ to calcite.
A. calcium B. magnesium C.iron D. sodium
Which of the following is most susceptible to chemical weathering by
Iron oxide is common at the surface of the earth because it forms by the
The process by which dissolved mineral matter precipitates in the pore
spaces of a sediment and binds it together is—
Playa (dry) lakes of the southwest United States are sites of deposition of–
A sedimentary “rock” formed by accumulation of altered plant remains is—
Clay particles stick together to form shales and mudstones by—
. Which of the following is most likely to dissolve away in semi-humid
Which of the following is an indication of an alternating wet and dry
The most abundant mineral group at the earth’s surface is (are) –
. In Hawaii, I would expect to see—
Which metamorphic rock contains the same basic minerals as an igneous
Heat from an igneous intrusion is the primary agent of change in
Which of the following metamorphic rocks displays a foliated texture?
Which mineral would indicate the higher grade of metamorphism
A thin, discoid-shaped, discordant igneous intrusion is probably a –
Phenocrysts are evidence of--
. When sea water evaporates, the first mineral to precipitate is ______.
_____ refers to the process of fossilization where the internal cavities and
pores of the original organism are filled with precipitated mineral matter.
. In contact metamorphism shales are altered to –
A monopolistic firm is a:
price taker that faces the market supply curve.
price taker that faces the market demand curve.
price maker that faces the market supply curve.
price maker that faces the market demand curve.
Barriers that prevent the entry of new firms may arise because:
economies of scale exist over a substantial range of industry demand.
price exceeds marginal cost.
marginal revenue is less than average total cost.
the government protects some firms from competition
is characterized by a single supplier.
is a market structure in which no close substitute products are available.
exists when entry and survival of potential competitors is extremely unlikely.
is characterized by all of the above.
Which of the following is a characteristic of a monopoly?
a large number of sellers
larger barriers to entry
D. Price Taking Firms
A key element to preserving a monopoly is:
government subsidization of critical enterprises.
keeping potential rivals out of the market.
guaranteeing the availability of substitute products.
increased advertising expenditures.
Which of the following would likely be an example of a monopolistic industry?
wireless phone service
none of the above
If there are economies of scale throughout the relevant output range of production, which is false?
A.It is a natural monopoly.
B. It is more efficient to have a single firm produce the good.
C. It would typically result from a firm's possession of an exclusive patent
D.One large firm can produce at lower cost than two or more smaller firms.
Which of the following is generally true of monopoly?
A. Average revenue equals price.
B. Price exceeds marginal cost.
C. Marginal revenue is less than price.
D. Output is restricted relative to the socially efficient level.
E. All of the above are generally true of monopoly
Which of the following is likely in a monopolized market?
a price that exceeds marginal cost
a price that exceeds marginal revenue
a welfare loss due to the restriction of output
the potential for continued profitability in the long run
all of the above
customers will pay higher prices than if the market were competitive.
customers will purchase fewer units of output than if the market were competitive.
society will not be allocating its resources efficiently.
all of the above will occur.
U.S Public utilities are often:
created through patent protection.
regulated natural monopolies.
Which of the following is characteristic of an oligopolistic industry?
A. either homogeneous or differentiated products
large barriers to entry
A basic characteristic of the firms in an oligopoly market structure is that they are:
large (relative to the total market) and interdependent
large (relative to the total market) and independent.
small (relative to the total market) and interdependent.
small (relative to the total market) and independent.
usually act as if they were a monopoly producer.
generally charge a price for goods and services equal to marginal cost.
base their pricing and output decisions on the likely responses of rival firms.
the book industry.
the music CD industry.
the automobile industry.
occurs when a firm increases price in order to exploit inelastic demand by consumers.
occurs when a firm prices below its competitors but above average variable cost in order to increase its market share.
occurs when a firm prices below average
is difficult to distinguish from vigorous competition in real-world markets.
is characterized by both c. and d
A natural monopoly is likely to arise when:
A. the government restricts entry through licensing.
B. patents provide protection of intellectual property.
C. economies of scale exist over the relevant range of demand.
D. a firm controls a crucial input to production. E. any of the above occur.
Which of the following is NOT potentially a barrier to entry into a product market?
A. patent protection on the design of the product
B. the absence of economies of scale in the product market
C. government licensing of the product's producers
D. the control of a crucial input necessary to produce the product
E. All of the above are potentially barriers to entry into a product market.
The demand curve of a monopolist is:
A. is identical to the marginal cost curve.
B. downward sloping and above the marginal revenue curve.
C. downward sloping and below the marginal revenue curve.
D. kinked because of recognized interdependence with other firms. E. horizontal at the market price.
Which of the following is NOT generally true about a profit-maximizing monopolist?
A. The monopolist faces a perfectly elastic demand curve
B. The monopolist can potentially continue to earn economic profits in the long run.
C. The monopolist charges a price that exceeds marginal cost.
D. The monopolist chooses output where marginal revenue equals marginal cost.
E. All of the above are true.
Which of the following is true of monopoly but not true of perfect competition?
A. Firms can potentially earn economic profits in the short run.
B. Total revenue is the product of price times the quantity sold.
C. Firms can potentially earn economic profits in the long run
A monopoly industry:
A. has very significant barriers to entry.
B. faces a downward sloping demand curve.
C. produces a product for which there are no close substitutes.
D. may earn economic profits or losses in the short run.
E. has all of the above characteristics.
Government regulation of natural monopolies might cause which problem below
A. creation of excessive profits levels
B. reduced incentives to cut costs
C. decreased number of firms in the market
D. lack of influence from special interest groups
Which of the following is true about price discrimination?
A. When there are a number of competing firms, price discrimination is less likely because competitors tend to undercut the high prices charged those discriminated against.
B. A profit-maximizing seller will charge a higher price for those with a greater willingness to pay, and a lower price for demanders with a lower willingness to pay.
C. Price differentials between groups will erode if reselling is easy.
D. Quantity discounts are a form of price discrimination which allow a seller to charge a higher price for the first unit than for later units.
E. All of the above are true of price discrimination.
Interdependence among firms is characteristic of:
A. perfectly competitive markets.
B. monopoly markets.
C. oligopoly markets.
Three airlines account for most of the air traffic in and out of a local city. If the three airlines joined together in setting fares and air travel schedules, economists would say that they were acting as:
A. monopolistic competitors, as each firm would have to differentiate its airline services from its rivals.
B. perfect competitors, as each firm would sell travel services at the same fares as the other airlines.
C. a cartel, as the three airlines together would attempt to coordinate policies in the local market to jointly maximize profits.
In a typical cartel agreement, the cartel maximizes profit when it:
A. behaves as a duopolist.
B. is flexible in enforcing production targets.
C. behaves as a monopolist.
As the number of firms in an oligopoly ____, the oligopoly becomes more ____. \
A. decreases; competitive
B. decreases; like a monopoly
C. increases; like a monopoly
D. increases; like perfect competition
E. both b. and d
Under conditions of oligopoly markets, firms generally don't like to compete based on price. Why? A. Because no producer has a cost advantage in doing so.
B. Because consumers rarely spend time making price comparisons between different brands.
C. Because competing on the basis of price can set off a price war among competitors and significantly reduce profits to the firm.
inversely; demand for
directly; demand for
directly; supply of
not; supply of
An increase in the wages of autoworkers leads to an increase in the demand for robots in automobile factories.
An auto firm decides to supply more minivans when there is a decrease in the demand for station wagons.
An increase in the price of gasoline leads to an increase in the demand for small cars.
An automobile firm faces an increase in the demand for cars it supplies to the market, which leads to an increase in the demand for auto workers.
the marginal product of labor > 0.
the marginal revenue product of labor < the marginal resource cost.
the marginal revenue product of labor > the marginal resource cost.
Which of the following statements are true regarding profit-maximizing firms?
A. They will attempt to maximize the difference between total revenues and total costs.
B. They will use more of a resource as long as the marginal resource cost (MRC) is greater than the marginal revenue product (MRP).
C. They will only produce where MRP is positive and MRC is negative.
Which of the following would cause the demand for carpenters to increase?
a decrease in immigration
an increase in the demand for housing
an increase in the price of lumber
a decrease in the productivity of carpenters
The relationship between the wage rate and the quantity of labor that employers wish to hire is called:
A. the market supply curve for labor.
B. the market demand curve for labor.
C. an individual demand curve for labor.
D. an individual supply curve for labor.
E. the market demand curve for output.
is 36 units.
When a firm evaluates the contribution of a worker to its ____, it must calculate the worker's contribution to revenue, minus the worker's ____.
A. profits; wage
B. output; wage
C. profits; marginal productivity
shows the relationship between the wage rate and the number of employees firms are willing to hire.
shows the relationship between the price of output and the number of employees firms are willing to hire.
shows the relationship between the wage rate and the quantity of labor that workers are willing to supply.
shows the relationship between the price of output and the quantity of labor that workers are willing to supply.
Which of the following does NOT contribute to increased worker productivity?
increased capital formation
improvements in workers' skills
increased labor supply
increases; remain constant
increased unionization and decreased nonunionization of employees in the economy
a rapid increase in the demand for labor
significantly relaxed immigration standards
increases in technological advances
higher education levels of workers
a decrease in labor productivity
a decrease in demand for the firm's product
an increase in the wage rate
a decrease in the price of the firm's product
increase the supply of labor.
decrease the supply of labor.
do both a. and b.
an increase in the number of hours worked per week by workers in a job employing low-skilled labor
the purchase of company stock by a worker
a summer internship at a law firm filled by someone attending law school
payments into a retirement pension plan by a skilled laborer
the purchase of a vehicle by an employee in order to commute to work
An increase in labor productivity will shift the demand curve for labor to the right.
An increase in wage will lead to an increase in the supply of labor.
A decrease in the nonwage income of workers would shift the labor supply curve to the right.
If job conditions deteriorate, it would lead to a reduction, or leftward shift, in the labor supply curve.
If the demand for labor increased faster than the supply, the real wages of workers would rise
Which of the following is not part of an argument that unions lead to increased productivity?
reduction in worker turnover
employees with more motivation
benefits from featherbedding
more effective communication in areas of discontent
a welfare payment.
a cash grant.
an unemployment check.
the lowest-income quintile (poorest 20% of the population) has benefited from state-subsidized higher education more than have middle-income and higher income quintiles.
the higher-income quintiles have benefited more than the poor from housing subsidies and Medicaid.
the middle and higher-income quintiles have benefited more than the poor from state-subsidized airports, airlines, operas, and museums.
the lowest-income quintile has benefited more than middle-income and upper-income quintiles from state-subsidized airports, airlines, operas, and museums.
An increasing proportion of retired people in the population.
An increase in the number of divorced people.
An increasing proportion of high income earning women marry high income earning men.
Young workers begin making up a larger proportion of the labor force.
All of the above changes would tend to increase measured income inequality.
the United States
only the rich are taxed.
higher marginal taxes are imposed on higher incomes.
lower taxes are imposed on everyone.
everyone pays the same percent of their income for tax.
progressives are taxed less than conservatives.
Approximately ____ of national income is compensation received by owners of land, capital, and entrepreneurial skills.
A. 10 percent B. 25 percent C. 40 percent D. 50 percent E. 75 percent
If the demand for softballs increases, one could expect the demand for leather to increase. This is due to the:
A. principle of diminishing marginal product.
B. change in the opportunity cost of producing a softball.
C. reduction in the cost of producing softballs.
D. demand for an input being a derived demand.
NOTE: MRC = Marginal Resource Cost; MRP = Marginal Revenue Product) The profit-maximizing firm should lay off workers when:
A. MRC < MRP.
B. MRC > MRP.
C. MRC = MRP.
D. the Marginal Product of labor begins to diminish.
Lower wages will
A. decrease the demand for labor.
B. decrease the quantity of labor demanded.
C. increase the demand for labor.
D. increase the quantity of labor demanded.
If the demand for the output produced by a firm's laborers increased, it would
A. increase the firm's demand for labor.
B. increase the quantity of labor demanded by the firm.
C. decrease the firm's demand for labor.
D. decrease the quantity of labor demanded by the firm.
The marginal product of labor measures:
A. the total amount of output produced by all workers combined.
B. the quantity of an intermediate product that is combined with labor to produce output.
C. the amount of output an individual worker contributes to a firm's total output.
D. the average productivity of workers hired by a firm. E. none of the above
A worker's contribution to the firm's revenue is measured directly by the worker's:
A. value of marginal product.
B. marginal product multiplied by his/her wage.
C. marginal product minus his/her wage.
D. contribution to total output.
The demand for labor is a derived demand. Employers hire workers until the:
A. wage rate equals the average product of labor. B. wage rate equals the marginal revenue product of labor.
C. last worker hired adds nothing to total output. D. average product of labor is zero.
E. marginal product of labor is zero.
The relationship between the wage rate and the quantity of labor that workers wish to supply is called:
A. the market supply curve for labor.
B. the market demand curve for labor.
C. an individual demand curve for labor.
D. an individual supply curve for labor.
E. the market demand curve for output
An individual firm in a perfectly competitive labor market faces:
A. a downward sloping labor demand curve and an upward sloping labor supply curve.
B. a horizontal labor supply curve and a vertical labor demand curve.
C. a horizontal labor supply curve and a downward sloping labor demand curve.
D. an upward sloping labor supply curve and a horizontal labor demand curve.
E. a vertical labor supply curve and a horizontal labor demand curve.
If the demand for labor and supply of labor both increased, but demand increased slower than the supply of labor
A. wages would rise.
B. wages would fall, but quantity would not change.
C. there would be an increase in the amount of laborers employed, but wages would not change.
D. there would be a decrease in the amount of laborers employed.
E. there would be an increase in the amount of laborers employed, but wages would decrease.
Which of the following would tend to raise real wages?
A. An increase in the demand for labor and no change in the supply of labor.
B. A decrease in the demand for labor and no change in the supply of labor.
C. An increase in the demand for labor that is greater than an increase in the supply of labor.
D. An increase in the demand for labor that is smaller than an increase in the supply of labor.
E. Either a. or c.
If an increase occurs in the demand for the output of industry A, we would expect all of the following to happen except:
A. an increase in the profits of industry A.
B. a decrease in prices of inputs used in the production of A.
C. an increase in the output of industry A.
D. an increase in the demand for inputs used in the production of A.
If the price of a good decreases, then, in the market for the type of labor that is used to produce it:
A. employment will decrease.
B. the supply of labor will increase.
C. the marginal revenue product of labor will decrease.
D. the supply of labor will decrease.
E. both a. and d. will result.
Other things being equal, a ____ supply of workers tends to ____ real wages.
A. larger; decrease
B. smaller; decrease
C. larger; increase
D. smaller; not change
E. larger not change
Which of the following will contribute to higher wage rates for labor?
A. increased productivity
B. increases in capital formation
C. a decrease in the supply of labor
D. increased marginal productivity of labor
E. all of the above
Economists refer to expenditures on training, education, and skill development designed to increase the productivity of an individual as:
A. overhead expenditures.
B. investments in human capital.
C. marginal revenue product.
D. investments in social capital.
E. the marginal product of labor.
The labor ____ curve(s) will shift if there is a change in productivity or a change in the demand for the final product.
C. supply and demand
D. None of the above are correct. Changes in productivity and the demand for final products do not affect the labor market
Which of the following are examples of job amenities?
A. a child-care center at work
B. health insurance benefits
C. pleasant working conditions
D. a workplace gymnasium
E. all of the above
Collective bargaining refers to negotiations between:
A. representatives of employers and unions.
B. unions and government regulators.
C. consumers and producers.
D. employers and consumers.
Since 1980, the proportion of income received by the top 5 percent of Americans has:
A. decreased minimally.
B. increased minimally.
C. increased substantially.
D. decreased substantially.
Which of the following represents in-kind income?
A. food stamps
B. Medicaid coverage
C. a public housing subsidy
D. a school lunch program
When the economy is in a recession, ____ rises and poverty ____.
A. unemployment; decreases
B. employment; decreases
C. unemployment; increases
The amount of poverty in the United States ____ in the 1960s and ____ from 2000 to 2010.
A. increased; decreased
B. decreased; held relatively steady
C. held relatively steady; increased
D. decreased; increased
E. increased; held relatively steady
Langston Hughes: Democracy