Find study materials for any course. Check these out:
Browse by school
Make your own
To login with Google, please enable popups
To login with Google, please enable popups
Don’t have an account?
To signup with Google, please enable popups
To signup with Google, please enable popups
Sign up withor
Digital images or films
Medical records that are created and organized around the patient’s problems are known as:
Which standard billing form is submitted for health care provider services such as those provided by a physician’s office to third party payers:
All of the above
2. CPT codes are published by the American Hospital Association (AHA) and updated each year
DRGs are used as the basis for determining appropriate inpatient reimbursement for Medicare, Medicaid, and other health care insurance beneficiaries
Medicare cost reports are filed annually by all hospitals, physician offices, home health agencies, skilled nursing facilities, and hospices that accept Medicare or Medicaid.
An electronic health record (EHR) is an electronic record of health-related information on an individual that can be managed, shared, and controlled by that individual
Medicare and Medicaid do not have the authority to access a patient’s medical record to confirm the accuracy of a filed claim by checking for documentation
3. The majority of problems with health care data content can generally be traced to:
According to the Medical Records Institute (MRI), which is NOT listed as one of the five major functions that are negatively impacted by poor-quality documentation:
Errors that can be attributed to a flaw or discrepancy in adherence to standard operating procedures or systems are known as:
Handwriting, speaking, typing, touching a screen or pointing and clicking on words or phrases are all examples of:
What professional organization has developed and published a data quality management tool that defines a specific set of characteristics of health care data that should always be present?
Data currency refers to the availability of medical information such as critical lab values to in a timely manner.
The Markle Foundation identifies the development of a “data quality culture” within health care organizations as a way to improve data quality:
Documenting health care information in an EHR through narrative form or unstructured fields allows for the full potential of the electronic record to be realized as a quality tool in insuring data consistency and comprehensiveness.
7. Data granularity refers to the fact that certain individual data elements such as a patient’s birth date or name cannot be further subdivided into individual elements and still remain useful.
8. Either information capture or report generation must occur in order to have quality documentation.
9. Sophisticated information systems can be used to overcome inherent problems associated with poor quality data sources and data collection errors.
10. IT systems alone have been shown to improve data accessibility and legibility:
1. The process that gives health care organizations the authority to participate in the federal Medicare and Medicaid programs is known as:
2. The best-known health care accrediting agency in the United States is:
3. Although state regulations may vary, the AHIMA currently recommends that patient health records for adults should be retained for how many years after the most recent encounter?
4. What quality organization is the developer and overseer of HEDIS measures and is known for their work in providing quality measures for health plans?
5. What was the first comprehensive federal regulation that offers specific protection to private health care information?
6. The expectation that information shared with a health care provider during the course of treatment will be used only for its intended purpose and not disclosed otherwise is know as:
7. How often must a health care organization undergo an on-site survey review by The Joint Commission?
8. The component of the HIPAA Privacy Rule that specifies that entities that improperly handle PHI can be charged under criminal law and punished and are subject to civil recourse is known as:
9. Organizations that can work with clinicians and health care organizations to identify, analyze, and reduce the risks and hazards associated with patient care are known as:
10. Which process tends to emphasize factors such as physical plant standards fire safety, and sanitation when assessing a health care organization?
1. As a rule, the federal government oversees the licensure of healthcare facilities.
2. The Joint Commission’s IM standards apply to both non-computerized systems and systems employing the latest technology. 11
3. The documents and data considered part of a patient’s Legal Health Record (LHR) cannot exist physically separate from the actual paper or electronic medical record.
4. Accreditation is a mandatory process that gives health care organizations legal approval to operate
5. Electronic signatures are now accepted by both the Joint Commission and CMS as legitimate forms of provider authentication
6. Health care providers and others must obtain written authorization from a patient prior to disclosure of health information for routine uses of treatment, payment, and health care operations.
7. The Privacy Act of 1974 was written to protect patient confidentiality in all health care facilities.
8. The HIPAA Privacy Rule defines covered entities as those individuals whose health information must be protected by health plans, health providers, and other health care organizations.
9. In some instances patient-specific health care information can be released without the patient’s authorization.
10. Administrative records are generally not included in a patient’s Legal Health Record (LHR).
1. The type of information system that can be used to manage personnel, finances, materials supplies, or equipment is specifically known as a:
2. Data could be entered into a mainframe computer and viewed by an end user through a:
3. The Medicare Modernization Act passed in 2003 mandated that health plans providing certain types of coverage to Medicare beneficiaries use:
4. HIPAA was signed into law in 1996 and was intended to:
6. What decade did the IOM publish its landmark report, publish a report that called for the adoption of the computer-based patient record (CPR):
7. The resource-based relative value scale (RBRVS) that was introduced in the early 90s was initially designed to redistribute funds from:
8. What initiative began in the early 2000s that was specifically intended to bring multiple stakeholders into formal partnerships to exchange health data electronically?
9. What term is often used to describe hosted services that are delivered over the internet?
10. Value-based purchasing reimburses providers based on:
1. An increased emphasis on preventative medicine and chronic disease management began in the 1990s.
2. Most of the early information systems in healthcare in the 60s were administrative applications.
3. Turnkey systems were software systems that could be easily modified to meet a hospital’s unique information needs.
4. To Err is Human: Building a Safer Health Care System that was published by the IOM focused on medical errors that occur across all health care settings
5. By the end of 2010, it was more likely for a physician practice to have implemented a “basic” EHR system than a hospital
6. The HITECH Act was the first piece of legislation that authorized Medicare to reimburse for telemedicine services.
8. Most states have a single, central organization responsible for telemedicine issues or a complete data repository containing all relevant rules, regulations, and policies for payers and programs.
9. Electronic health records (EHRs) are considered a clinical application or clinical information system
10. The best-of-breed approach became prevalent in the 1980s and allowed organizations to easily interface different systems.
1. Studies have shown that about half of medication errors occur during:
2. Monitoring patient blood sugar levels at home through a glucometer attached to a cell phone is an example of:
3. What is NOT considered a function of a “basic” EHR system?
4. What organization is responsible for testing and certifying EHR technology that can be used by a provider to qualify for EHR incentive payments through the Medicare and Medicaid programs?
5. Bar coding technology is a clinical application used to promote patient safety by improving the process of:
6. Approximately how much money did the federal government provide in total Medicare and Medicaid incentive dollars to encourage health care professionals and hospitals to become meaningful users of EHRs?
7. As part of telemedicine, Store and forward technology is used primarily to:
8. What is NOT considered a major effect of clinical information systems on patient quality?
9. Health care information standards and implementation specifications are examples of what type of barriers to adoption:
10. What is NOT necessarily considered a workflow advantage of CPOE?
3. Studies consistently show that utilizing EHRs help physicians realize time savings.
1. An adverse drug event (ADE) may or may not have involved a medication error.
2. Home health and hospice agencies have experienced wide spread adoption of EHRs
4. Medline is an example of an application known as a knowledge-based reference system that allows a clinician to access the latest research findings or practice guidelines.
5. CPOE systems are easily implemented and operate in isolation.
6. A personal health records (PHR) is managed by a consumer and may contain both health and wellness information, such as an individual’s wellness plan.
7. It is estimated that close to 25 percent of hospitals have fully implemented CPOE systems
8. The majority of studies have shown that EHRs have had no negative impact on the physician-patient relationship.
9. Telehealth always involves the provision of clinical services.
10. EHR systems can help healthcare organizations realize higher reimbursements due to higher-quality documentation and improved coding practices.
1. ACOs incentivize physicians and other providers to work together to improve the quality of health care services and reduce costs for a defined population through what kind of payment model?
2. HITECH provided funding for the development of organizations to support providers in adopting and becoming meaningful users of EHRs known as:
3. A Patient Centered Medical Home (PCMH) is an approach to providing patient care that is facilitated through what type of health care organization?
4. Disclosure of an individual’s protected health information (PHI) due to a security breach must be reported to Health and Human Services Office of Civil Rights and the media if it is believed to involve more than how many individuals?
5. The most common type of HIE architecture is:
6. The initiative that identifies leading organizations that are demonstrating how health information technology can be used in innovation ways to target specific health problems within communities is known as:
7. What is NOT one of the three main components of Meaningful Use explicitly specified in the HITECH Act?
8. Referral management systems and patient navigation systems are both examples of:
9. The maximum amount an eligible professional can receive through the Medicaid EHR incentive program is:
10. The Direct Project and CONNECT Open Source Solution are two major initiatives affiliated with what efforts to facilitate health information exchange over the internet?
1. Health care organizations that do not demonstrate Meaningful Use within a designated time frame will experience penalties in the form of Medicare and Medicaid payment reductions.
2. Capitation or global payment places full risk with the provider organization.
3. ACOs must include a sufficient number of primary care professionals to provide services to at least three thousand beneficiaries for a three-year period.
4. CMS is moving towards a bundled payment system where a single payment will be made to hospitals and physicians jointly for a given condition, episode of care, or procedure.
5. Eligible professionals qualifying for the Medicare EHR incentive program must have at least 30 percent Medicaid population to participate.
6. The criteria for Meaningful Use are to be implemented in 5 stages over a specified number of years.
7. Eligible hospitals can earn over $2 million through the Medicare EHR incentive program
8. CMS established an Innovation Center to test, evaluate, and expand different care models.
9. Hospitals and eligible providers do not have to demonstrate meaningful use in the first year to qualify for Medicaid EHR incentive payments but can simply adopt, implement or upgrade an EHR.
10. CMS specifies the standards, implementation specifications, and other criteria for EHR systems to be certified under HITECH.
1. One of the first steps in the system acquisition process is to:
2. What is NOT an advantage to contracting with an Application Service Provider (ASP) to host an EMR?
3. The ideal project steering committee consists of how many members?
4. The phase of the system development life cycle where all alternatives are considered, a cost-benefit analysis is done, a system is selected, and vendor negotiations are finalized is known as:
5. The four phases of the system development life cycle in sequential order are:
d. Planning and analysis, design, implementation, support and evaluation
6. Once the project steering committee has been established, one of the first things it should is to:
7. What is the final step of the system acquisition process where expectations are outlined and performance requirements are determined with the vendor?
8. The final summary report developed by the project steering committee should include everything but?
9. What is an example of a research organization that produces market analysis reports listing and describing vendors that provide EHR systems?
10. The system acquisition process consists of what two phases of the systems development life cycle:
1. The primary focus of the planning and analysis phase is on the business problem or the organization’s strategy, independent of any technology that can or will be used.
2. It is generally advisable to have two or three vendors in the final ranking and recommendations made by the project steering committee:
3. An RFP might be used when the health care organization is considering only a small group of vendors or products or when it is still in the exploratory phase.
4. After reviewing vendor RFPs and evaluating their product demonstrations, the steering committee should prepare a summary report that includes their final recommendation.
5. Working with a system developer can be a good option when the health care organization’s needs are highly predictable or commonplace.
6. Concurrently with the establishment of project goals, the project steering committee should conduct its first cursory review of the EHR marketplace.
7. The use of scripts can ensure that all vendors are evaluated on the same basic or functionality during demonstrations and should be adhered to.
8. System acquisition refers to the process that occurs from the time the decision is made to select a new system until the time the system has been fully implemented
9. When conducting a cost-benefit analysis, the total cost of ownership should not include the resources needed to implement and support the system but simply the capital costs.
10. All vendor requests and communication should be channeled through the project steering committee to manage vendor access to organizational leadership.
1. One of the first activities necessary in implementing any new system is:
2. IT staff plays the most crucial role in what phase of system implementation?
3. What are the fundamental activities that should occur during any system implementation?
4. It is reasonable to expect that the hardware, software, and network will likely need to be replaced in how many years as advances are made in technology?
5. Ensuring sufficient staff are on hand and setting up mechanisms for reporting and correcting problems are all activities associated with which phase of the implementation plan?
6. Who would be the best person to serve as system champion for the implementation of a CPOE system?
7. What was NOT identified as one of the unintended consequences that implementation teams should plan for and consider when implementing CPOE?
8. The main concern with using the train the trainer approach is that:
9. The most ideal way to deliver technical support to users during the implementation phase is by:
10. When considering a long-term investment in a system, the resources allocated or committed to a system include:
1. System implementation begins once the organization has acquired the system and continues through the early stages following the go-live data.
2. In many health care organizations, the system champion is usually a non-clinical member of the staff.
3. The implementation team should include all of the same people that were involved in selecting the system during the system acquisition process.
4. Studies among health care organizations that have implemented clinical applications have shown that classroom training is just as effective as one-on-one coaching particularly among physicians.
5. CPOE is one of the most complex and challenging clinical information systems to implement.
6. Studies have shown that an information system’s value to the organization is typically realized immediately if sufficient time and resources are provided during the implementation phase.
7. It is always advisable to run the old and new systems in tandem (parallel conversion) for a period of time until it is evident that the new system is operating effectively.
8. Understanding the culture of your organization is something that should occur during the implementation process.
9. Informal communication related to the project’s progress is less structured but can be equally as important as formal communication.
10.The components of the information system implementation plan should occur in sequential order to be effective,
1. The most common type of database in use today is a:
2. The phase of the Hype Cycle for health care technologies during which mainstream adoption starts to take off and criteria for assessing provider viability are more clearly defined is known as:
3. Which type of database is specifically designed for decision support and allows data to be extracted along such dimensions as time, location or diagnosis?
4. What is NOT a component of the WAN network?
5. A type of architecture that wraps a common browser user interface around a set of diverse applications allowing the user to use one set of screens to access data from several applications is know as:
6. A type of media that uses radio waves for data transmission by employing a deliberately varied signal that results in greater bandwidth is known as: 34
7. A common server-based distribution method that uses multiple servers to communicate each of which is dedicated to one or more specialized function is known as:
8. Expert systems, natural language processing, and neural networks are all examples of:
9. A type of remote access technology that provides access to applications through a locally installed client and can run on different computing devices such as tablets and phones is known as:
10. Herbert Simon describes decision making as a three-part process that includes:
1. The most common markup language used today is XML extensible markup language.
2. One common way to distinguish a WAN from a LAN is that the WAN will have its network hardware and software under the control of a single organization. 35
3. The building blocks of the World Wide Web are web pages.
4. Broadband is the term used to describe media that is capable of carrying multiple transmissions simultaneously:
5. Wireless Ethernet is the most popular LAN system in use today, both in health care and in business.
6. Unstructured problems are also referred to as programmable problems, because a computer program can be written with relative ease to solve this kind of problem.
7. The Internet is the means by which the majority of users interact with the World Wide Web (WWW).
8. Architecture refers primarily to the organization’s computer networks and to the applications running on those networks
9. Wikis are used for collaborative sharing and editing of information and are included under the umbrella of Web 2.0.
10. An extranet is similar to an intranet except that the network of users includes business partners of the healthcare organization, such as suppliers, customers, or other health care provider.
1. The most common method of developing health care IT standards is:
2. Which organization has the responsibility under a HIPAA mandate, to recommend uniform data standards for patient medical record information (PMRI)?
3. Which standards are specifically related to the electronic transfer of digital diagnostic images between devices manufactured by different vendors?
4. The standard for the electronic exchange of patient summary information or “transportable” patient care information is known as:
5. Which is NOT a specific code set for diagnoses and procedures mandated by HIPPA to be used in any transaction by a covered entity?
6. A comprehensive clinical terminology developed specifically to facilitate the electronic storage and retrieval of detailed clinical information is known as:
7. What standards are specifically related to the secure exchange of health information over the Internet?
8. Which organization produces RxNorm that serves as a normalized naming system for generic and brand name drugs?
9. What UMLS knowledge source contains all of the common health care information vocabularies with a goal of incorporating and mapping them into a single system?
10. CDT codes are designed to support accurate recording and reporting of treatments and procedures related to?
1. In recent years, a single vocabulary has emerged to meet all of the information exchange needs of the health care sector.
2. Although there is no requirement that providers write prescriptions electronically, those who chose to do so must comply with specific electronic prescribing standards.
3. The LOINC system was developed to facilitate the electronic transmission of laboratory results.
4. All SDOs share the responsibility for the development, maintenance, and modification of relevant electronic data interchange standards as designated by HIPAA.
5. The FDA is responsible for assigning a unique three-segment NDC as the universal product identifier for all human drugs
6. The SQL database language and Windows operating system are examples of standards that were developed ad hoc.
7. HIPAA transaction standards only apply to certain covered entities’ electronic data interchange (EDI).
8. All SDOs must be accredited by ANSI and develop standards in accordance with ANSI criteria.
9. CVX was developed as a table for use with HL7 messaging standards related to clinical vaccines. 40
10. HL7 v3 messaging standards incorporate the root elements of HTML.
1. Under the HIPAA Security Rule, which is NOT considered a covered entity (CE)?
2. HITECH gave the responsibility for enforcing the HIPAA Privacy and Security Rules to:
3. Password system, PINS, and biometric identification systems are all specific examples of:
4. One of the key components of applying administrative safeguards to protect an organization’s health care information is:
5. The most stringent type of access control is:
6. The policies and procedures that govern the receipt and removal of hardware, software, and devices such as disks and tapes are known as:
7. Security management functions, assigned security responsibility, and information access management are all standards included in which safeguard category of the HIPAA Security Rule?
8. A type of software that protects computing resources and is most commonly found between the health care organization’s internal network and the Internet is known as a(n):
9. A common type of computer virus that resides in a removable media device such as a flash drive is known as a:
10. According to the National Institute for Standards and Technology (NIST), what type of contingency-related plan is typically IT focused and used in the event of a major hardware or software failure?
1. External breaches of security are far more common than internal breaches.
2. The most common encryption algorithm in use today is RSA; however, the AMA recommends AES as a better choice for encrypting electronic protected health information (ePHI).
3.The HIPAA Security Rule governs all protected health information (PHI).
4. Password and PIN systems are the most common forms of entity authentication and provide the strongest form of security
5. Computer viruses are among the most common and virulent forms of intentional computer tampering.
6. The proxy server is a more complex firewall device than the packet filter and runs on a computer.
7. Ciphertext is a computer program that converts plaintext into an enciphered form.
8. The primary challenge of developing an effective security program in a health care organization is balancing the need for security with the cost of security.
9. All of the specifications contained within the HIPAA Security Rule are considered required.
10. Time limit, availability, and updates are all implementation specifications contained within the Policies, Procedures, and Documentation section of the HIPAA Security Rule.
1. Data center management, network engineers, and help desk personnel are all examples of roles that would fall under:
2. What is an example of an infrastructure service metric that can be used to formally measure services levels?
3. An advantage to managing IT in a health care organization with a decentralized structure is:
4. Managing contracts with vendors, and developing and monitoring the IT budget are all tasks that are likely be performed by:
5. According to Agarwal and Sambamurthy, what core IT process involves identifying new ways for IT to improve business operations and ensure that IT investments deliver value?
6. An IT professional that would be responsible for identifying information system needs and problems, evaluating workflow, and determining strategies for optimizing the use and effectiveness of particular systems is a:
7. IT staff and services that are organized to support a particular application such as a billing system or clinical area are structured according to?
8. All are characteristics of a high-performing IT staff except:
9. Asking questions such as ‘To what degree are IT strategies well aligned with the organization’s overall strategic goals?’ are related to what key area of evaluating IT effectiveness?
10. A member of the IT team that is concerned with leading clinical information system initiatives is likely the:
1. On average, hospitals spend 5 percent of their operating budget and 25 percent of their capital budget on IT.
2. Organizing IT staff according to critical organizational processes is a common approach because most organizations are structured this way.
3. The role of CMIO is usually held by a physician and may be filled through a part time commitment.
4. Applications programmers write programs to maintain and control infrastructure software, such as operating systems, networked systems, and database systems.
5. In recent years, health care organizations have shown a growing interest in outsourcing part or all of their IT services.
6. It general, over half of all health care provider CIOs report directly to the CEO of their health care organization.
7. Network administrators and telecommunications specialist often work closely together to manage a healthcare organization’s communication network.
8. Tracking emerging technologies, and identifying the ones that might provide value to the organization are tasks commonly carried out by the CTO.
9. The organization or form of the IT department in an integrated delivery system (IDS) is sometimes matrixed.
10. Despite the advantages of a more centralized approach to managing IT services, many health care organizations have moved in recent years to a relatively decentralized structure.
1. The development of an organization’s strategy has two major components known as:
2. What term refers to broad properties of the organization’s infrastructure such as reliability and agility?
3. What vector of IT strategy development can be highly speculative and may not require any immediate action?
4. Strategy discussions surrounding the application asset as a whole focus on all of these key areas EXCEPT:
6. The IT asset is composed of what four components?
7. The determination of the basic long-term goals and objectives of an organization, the adoption of the course of action, and the allocation of resources necessary to carry out those actions is known as:
8. All of the reasons are attributed to the persistent difficulty many health care organization’s face in achieving IT alignment EXCEPT:
9. All of the following are considered members of the IT staff who are responsible for the day in and day out management of information technology systems EXCEPT:
10. What process centers on discussions of ideas and issues that lead to the determination of goals and initiatives and the definition of organizational capabilities and competencies needed to implement these goals and initiatives?
1. Formulation involves understanding competing ideas and choosing between them
2. Organizations that have a history of IT excellence have evolved to a state where their alignment process is methodology-less. 51
3. The implementation component of strategy development includes the development of project plans and budgets.
4. An effective IT alignment requires the integration of the organization’s strategic context, environment, IT strategy, and IT portfolio
5. IT alignment done correctly will guarantee the effective application of IT.
6. Strategic decisions rarely involve changes in the core understandings that guide organizational activity.
7. The process of developing IT strategy should be similar in approach and nature to the process used for overall strategic planning.
8. The alignment process should produce a number of results including a high-level analysis of the budget needed to carry out any IT initiatives.
9. A strategic decision has clear and illuminating ramifications for many other decisions.
10. Scoring or ranking can be used as a method of prioritizing recommendations by the leadership team and should be accepted as definitive output.
a. Continuous improvement of processes
2. Foundation replacement should only occur under what circumstances?
3. What source of advantage is realized when IT is used to monitor an organization’s plans, operations, and environment?
4. The way an organization views a particular IT challenge or opportunity is known as:
5. The type of strategies that result from an understanding that a set of IT strategies points to the need to elevate some aspects of organizational IT-related competency are specifically known as:
6. Using an EHR to implement systems such as personal health records (PHRs) and to remotely monitor chronically ill patients are examples of initiatives that would occur during what part of Phase II?
7. The pursuit of IT as a source of competitive advantage can result in competitive baggage such as:
8. According to Jim Collins seminal book Good to Great, all of the following are general observations of ‘great’ companies orientation to IT EXCEPT:
9. A source of advantage that requires a solid understanding of the needs of patients, providers, and other customers is:
10. Factors that can limit the utility of IT technology as a tool include all of the following EXCEPT:
1. Complementary strategies are organizational initiatives that do not involve the IT asset per se but are needed for the IT strategy to succeed
2. The competitive advantage obtained from an IT application or technology rarely comes from the actual IT system but rather from skilled process changes that distinguish an organization from its competitors.
3. Initiative specific strategies are developed through discussions about how to make the organization more effective in its IT efforts
4. Assessing the return on investment (ROI) of a foundation is an easier exercise than determining the ROI or net present value (NPV) of an application.
6. Improved organizational competitive position through process gains is usually an automatic result of IT implementation.
7. Planning for Phase II must start while the organization is in Phase I but should not begin until Phase I is completed.
8. Organizations that have been effective in the strategic application of IT over a long period of time generally have a series of ‘singles’ or small successes punctuated by an occasional leap, or grand slam.
9. Information technology itself can provide a competitive advantage that is sustainable for a long time
10. An organization should realistically be able to define all of their functionality requirements during the RFP process.
1. Ensuring that the IT issues and needs of a function of the organization are understood and communicated to the IT department and the executive committee is a responsibility of the:
2. According to Peter Weill and Jeanne Ross, which of the five major areas that form the foundation of IT governance deals with an integrated set of technical choices used to guide the organization in satisfying business needs?
3. One of the most critical management undertakings that involves the commitment of resources to carry out strategic initiatives is:
4. Ensuring that the organization has a comprehensive, thoughtful, and flexible IT strategy is a responsibility of:
5. Well-developed governance mechanisms have all of these characteristics EXCEPT:
6. What is the second step of IT budget development?
7. Participating in developing and maintaining the IT agenda and priorities and understanding the scope and quality of IT initiatives within a specific department are responsibilities of:
8. According to Carol Brown and Vallabh Sambamurthy, which of the five mechanisms used by IT groups to improve their coordination and working relationships involves actions such as training IT staff on team building or offering user feedback during their reviews?
8. According to Carol Brown and Vallabh Sambamurthy, which of the five mechanisms used by IT groups to improve their coordination and working relationships involves actions such as training IT staff on team building or offering user feedback during their reviews?
9. All are considered characteristics of an organization that aspire to high levels of IT effectiveness EXCEPT:
10. Despite the size of a health care organization effective management at a minimum requires:
1. The fundamental accountability for the performance of the health care organization, including the IT function is held by the organization’s senior leadership.
2. Developing an IT steering committee to address all IT issues and decision is generally a good idea.
3. Too much user responsibility can lead to insufficient attention to infrastructure, resulting in application instability.
4. Governance structures and the distribution of responsibilities should be some what influenced by basic strategic objectives.
5. Some of the responsibilities of the IT group may be delegated to others for example a non-IT department may be permitted to have their own IT staff and manage their own systems.
6. As a general ground rule, the IT budget should be discussed in the same conversations that discuss or involve non-IT budget requests.
7. Capital budgets are the funds associated with using and maintaining the asset.
8. Effective application of IT involves the thoughtful distribution of IT responsibilities between the IT department, users of applications and IT services, and senior management.
9. An IT committee of the board can be composed of committee members other than board members such as IT professionals.
10. The IT staff or CIO should be asked to defend infrastructure investments but should not be asked to defend applications.
1. Changes that leave the organization and its core mission intact but significantly alter the way the organization carries out its business are:
2. What individual generally holds overall accountability for a project?
3. What tool or document provides an overview of the project and is used by the project team during the day-to-day management of the project ?
4. It is estimated that around what percentage of IT projects are successful?
5. All are considered necessary aspects of change management EXCEPT:
6. What committee generally focuses on a subset of IT projects and determines if the project is proceeding well or likely to be heading into trouble?
7. The project status report that documents and communicates the current condition of the project is generally prepared and distributed:
8. The two major categories of risk that confront significant IT investments are:
9. Maintaining the project plan and communicating progress to sponsors, stakeholders, and team members are responsibilities of the:
10. What aspect of change management deals with helping the staff understand the nature of the change and how their roles and work life will be different?
1. Fundamental change is common in health care and carries less risk than other forms of change.
2. Project management places an emphasis on many of the “softer” aspects of management and leadership such as communicating vision and establishing trust.
3. Project phases and tasks including the sequence of these phases and tasks are generally included in the project plan.
4. If a change affects the entire organization, then it is advisable for the CEO to chair the leadership committee.
5. Management strategies should be the same regardless of the type of project being undertaken.
6. Change initiatives and IT projects need to communicate their progress regularly but only when that progress is largely seen or apparent to the organization.
7. One outcome of continuous change may be the recognition that current application systems are progressively becoming a poor fit with the evolving organization.
8. The project team generally manages the performance of the project work and allocates resources as necessary to do the work.
9. Excellent project management always ensures project success.
10. For very complex projects, it is not unusual to see 20 to 25 percent of the budget and the duration of some tasks labeled as “unknown” or “unclear.”
1. Of the four types or classes of IT investment, which involves upgrading core IT infrastructure and applications or is intended to reduce the cost or improve the quality of IT services?
2. A common financial measure that is calculated by subtracting the initial investment from the future cash flows that result from the investment is known as:
3. During what step related to increasing accountability for IT investments, should the project sponsors and business owners be defined and develop an understanding of the accountability they now have for the successful completion of the project?
4. Fewer errors, faster turnaround times for tests results, and a quicker admission process are all examples of tangible values that can be measured in terms of:
5. A common proposal problem that occurs when it is projected that people will use the system in a specific way is:
6. What is described as a cornerstone in examining the value of an IT project?
7. What is intended to significantly change the competitive position of the organization or redefine the core nature of the enterprise?
8. According to Ross and Johnson, prerequisites for effective IT prioritization include:
9. All of the following are examples of intangible values EXCEPT:
10. Steps to improve value realization include all of the following EXCEPT:
1. Many studies have found that there is no overall obvious direct relationship between IT expenditures and organizational performance.
2. Information system infrastructure is hard to evaluate, as evaluation is often instinctive and experientially based.
3. Organizations commonly revisit their IT investments to determine if the promised value was actually achieved.
4. IT’s economic impact comes from incremental innovations rather than from ‘big bang’ initiatives.
5. Information system investments directed at improving the quality of service or medical care are generally evaluated in terms of service parameters.
6. An organization can determine the ROI of an investment in a tool only if it knows the task to be performed and the skill level of the participants who are to perform the task.
7. In health care it is common that information systems are the centerpiece of a redefinition of the organization.
8. Statements about specific numerical goals are commonly included in IT project proposals
9. IT investments that have different objectives and value propositions have different value assessment techniques.
10. When different organizations implement the same system and have comparable implementation skill levels, the value achieved is usually the same.
Sign up for free and study better.
Get started today!