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Identify the urine sediment element shown by the arrow:
Reabsorption in the kidneys primarily occurs in:
Common crystals which can be found in ACID urine include: (Choose all that apply.)
The renal threshold is best described as:
Concentration at which a substance in the blood spills into urine
Which one of the following crystals is NOT found in normal urine?
A low CSF glucose level is associated with all the following except:
Please select the single best answerHyperglycemia
Which of the following is not a standard method for measuring the specific gravity of urine?
SP reagent strips
Urine specimen taken to lab 6 hrs after collection. Results:Color: yellow Protein: neg Bilirubin: neg Clarity: cloudy Glucose: neg Urobilinogen: 0.2 mg/dL Sp. Gravity: 1.020 Ketone: neg Nitrite: pos pH: 9.0 Blood: neg Leukocyte esterase: neg
What might these results indicate?
Which of the following white blood cells would NOT produce a positive leukocyte esterase test on the urine chemical reagent strip?
What element is indicated by the arrow on this slide?
Finely granular cast
Excessive carbohydrate loss that may occur due to vomiting, or rapid weight loss may result in the presence of which of following substances not normally contained in the urine?
What type of cast is shown in the illustration?
A test for microalbuminuria is used most often to monitor patients with which of the following diseases or conditions?
The correct answer is highlighted belowDiabetes
Bence-Jones proteinuria can be seen in all of the following conditions except:
Cells seen in the microscopic examination of the urine of a 30 year old female which are smaller than RBC’s but much the same shape are probably:
During routine inspection, a unit of unexpired blood was noticed to have a black color with numerous small clots. What is the likely cause for this observation?
the unit was frozen
(Bacterial contamination can manifest itself in several ways including: the presence of clots, darker purple-black color of blood unit, unit can appear cloudy, hemolysis may be present.)
Which of the following consequences of severe hemolytic disease of the fetus and newborn (HDFN) is most associated with neonatal death before or shortly after birth?
What's the most prudent step to follow to select units for cross-match after recipient ab's have been IDENTIFIED?
perform DAT & IAT on patient cells & donor units
When AHG or Coombs serum is used to demonstrate that red cells are antibody coated in vivo, the procedure is termed:
Which of the following might cause a false positive indirect antiglobulin test:
Failure to adequately wash cells
A unit of Red Blood Cells that was collected on 15 June 2009 and frozen with glycerol at -80 degrees C on 21 June 2009 will expire on what date?
14 June 2019
When performing a transfusion reaction investigation, what is the clerical check used to detect?
The type of reaction that occured
Patients with antibody to the following antigen are immune to Hepatitis B:
A plasma cortisol of 22 µg/dL at 8:30 a.m. and 10 µg/dL at 4:00 p.m. would be:
consistent with Addison's disease
How long does it take for plasma concentrations to reach steady state when a patient's dose is given at intervals of the drug's half-life?
Low values of plasma ceruloplasmin are MOST associated with:
Which one of the following is a TRUE statement concerning alkaline phosphatase?
It is optimally active at pH 5
The expected glucose value of an ABNORMAL 2-hour post-glucose tolerance test is:
markedly elevated glucose levels; above fasting levels
Which of the following enzymes is NOT used to determine hepatobiliary dysfunction?
A zinc deficiency in the elderly is often caused by:
Decreased intake and absorption
Which of the following will give the best overall picture of a patient's iron stores:
The yeast form of Blastomyces dermatitidis is a thick-walled yeast cell that characteristically produces a single bud attached by a broad base.
A staphylococcus species recovered from a blood culture was found to produce slime substance, produced acid from sucrose and maltose and showed alkaline phosphatase activity. The most likely identification is:
Polymerase chain reaction (PCR) and branched chain DNA (bDNA).
Vancomycin resistance- Enterococcus faecium
Methicillin resistance- Staphylococcus aureus
Cephalosporin resistance- Klebsiella pneumoniae
Intermediate penicillin resistance- Streptococcus pneumoniae
Which one of the following statements is false?
Rickettsial infections are usually best diagnosed by specific serology, rather than the Weil-Felix test
In photo are 3 tubes of Moeller decarboxylase broths, cont. from left to right, the aa lysine, arginine & ornithine respectively. A red-blue rxn indicates decarboxylation of the amino acid; yellow is neg. Of the bacterial species listed, these rxns are most likely caused by:
Which of the following is NOT a characteristics of Burkholderia pseudomallei?
Additional characteristics include:Catalase pos, Oxidase pos, Motility pos, Indole neg
abscess in hepatic lobe, proudced butterscotch odor?
Which of the following microscopic techniques is capable of producing a 3-dimensional image :
The measurement of light scatter is characteristic of:
How many milliliters of a 5 M solution would be needed to make 250 ml. of a 2 M solution?
(V1)(M1) = (V2)(M2) Where V = volume and M = molarity
(V1)(5M) = (250 mL)(2M)
5V1 = 500 mL
V1 = 100 mL (or 100 mL 5M solution)
Therefore, when 100 mL of a 5M solution is diluted to 250 mL, the resultion soltution is 2M.
According to the OSHA Bloodborne Pathogens Standard, when should work surfaces in the laboratory be decontaminated with an appropriate disinfectant? (Choose all that apply)
If blood or other potentially infectious material has spilled on the work surface
Which of the following BEST describes the relation of nephelometry to turbidimetry?
nephelometry measures amt of light absorbed by particles in soln, & turbidimetry measures amt of light transmitted thru a soln
Which of the following components are part of an effective TB infection control program?
To control the spread of infection, any of these events must occur:
Person-to-person transmission is prevented, Host response is effectively stimulated to prevent, control, or eliminate infection, Antimicrobial treatment is effective against M. tuberculosisTherefore, an effective TB infection control program must include:
Within what period of time after performance of the tuberculin skin test (TST) should the result be read?
A laboratory fire that is the direct result of the electrical malfunction of a laboratory instrument or piece of equipment would be classified as:
HIPAA stands for:
Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
Which of the following is an illegal topic to ask about during an employee interview?
Age of the applicant
A phlebotomist performs a skin puncture to obtain capillary specimens for a CBC, a plasma-based chem test, & a serum-based immuno test. The microcollection containers used are lavender top (EDTA), green top (heparin) , & gold top (no anticoa) . Which microcollection container is collected first?
Microcontainer collection order of draw differs from reg. peripheral blood collection order of draw. When performing capillary draw, lavender top is obtained first to decreases possibility of clots in container wch would invalidate results of the CBC test.After the lavender is drawn, other containers with anticoagulants would be collected, and containers without anticoagulants would be collected last
At pH 8.6 proteins are charged and will migrate toward the:
What are key things to remember when collecting a light-blue top tube for coagulation testing?
The tube must be adequately filled
The tube should not be shaken vigorously as this may cause hemolysis; it should be gently inverted immediately after fill to prevent microclots.
The light-blue top tube should not be the last tube that is collected; it should be collected immediately after tubes for blood culture, or first if cultures are not included.
Which type of spectrophotometric blank should be used to account for absorbance differences caused by the specimen being tested:
Precautionary information that pertains to a laboratory instrument or appliance can ONLY be obtained by contacting the manufacturer.
Which of the following can help prevent fires?
It is OK to change a physician's orders without calling the office first when:
It is obvious to you they ordered the wrong test
It is never acceptable to change a physician's order without calling the office or department first. All changes must have approval beforehand.
According to the Michaelis-Menton kinetics theory, when a reaction is performed in zero-order kinetics:
Substrate very low & rxn rate depend on substrate.
Which of the following procedures would you employ to monitor the precision of an assay:
Run assayed controls
Which of the following methods may be used by a laboratory to document and analyze all of the steps that bring a laboratory test result to the customer (eg, physician, nurse, and/or patient)?
Root cause analysis
A lab developing a new testing procedure runs test on 1,000 patients. Results show that experimental procedure produced few false-negatives, but many false-positives. Which of the following statements is true regarding the experimental procedure?
It has high sensitivity
This test has high sensitivity. Highly sensitive tests produce few false-negatives.
Sensitivity= True positives (TP) / TP + False negatives (FN)
In this example, the sensitivity is 98%.
Highly specific tests produce fewer false positives. The test in this example has a specificity of only 74%. Therefore, it is not highly specific.
Specificity = True negatives (TN) / TN + false positives (FP)
Which of the following are TRUE statements when performing maintenance or repair tasks on electrical equipment? (Choose all that apply.)
It is unnecessary to take any additional measures when performing repairs on a piece of equipment, except to turn it off.
Tagout is placement of tag on energy-isolating device notifying staff: "Do Not Operate this Equipment." Lockout is the physical placement of device on breaker or placement of plug in canister to prevent use.
What is the coefficient of variation for this creatinine testing method? Use (Mean = .97 mg/dL, s = .07 mg/dL)
CV% = (SD/Mean)100
CV% = ( .07/.97)100
CV% = (.0722)100
CV% = 7.22%
Which of the following cells are considered abnormal and clinically significant on a CSF differential?
The nitrite portion of the test strip can be used to: (Choose ALL correct answers)
Monitor antibiotic therapy
What is the identification of this crystal seen in a urine with an alkaline pH?
Identify the urine sediment elements shown by the arrow:
Which of the following characteristics of cerebrospinal fluid are considered abnormal?
Which of the following methods may be employed to definitively identify Bence-Jones proteins:
What are the microscopic elements that are indicated by arrows in this image?
A reagent strip test for hemoglobin has been reported positive. Microscopic examination fails to yield red blood cells. This patient's urine condition can be called:
Hemoglobinuria, or the presence of hemoglobin in the urine, indicates that red cells have lysed and released their intracellular hemoglobin. Because the cells are no longer intact, you will not see red cells during microscopic examination. Remember that the urine strip detects hemoglobin itself, not only intact red blood cells.
Select the morphologic structure that identifies Candida albicans and distinguishes it from most other Candida species.
Which one of the following fungi is MOST likely to be found as a common saprobe and as a cause of keratitis?
Fusarium can be found as a common saprobe and as a cause of keratitis. Fusarium colonies are most commonly fast-growing and may or may not have a cottony aerial mycelium. Fusarium typically produce both macroconidia and microconidia from thin phialides. Macroconidia and microconidia are both hyaline. Chlamydoconidia may or may not be present.
Under a Woods’ lamp, infected hair strands from several children w/ tinea capitis showed green fluorescence, & subsequent cultures grew fungi w/ aerial mycelia & terminal chlamydospores. These isolates are most likely:Candida albicans
The production of polar germ tubes is a characteristic that is associated with which of these dematiaceous fungi?
Bipolaris species receives its genus name from the production of germ tubes extending from both sides of a conidium that has been incubated in an aqueous environment for several hours.
The production of urn-shaped phialides is characteristic of Phialophora verrucosa.
Alternaria species is characterized by the production of drum stick-shaped multi-celled, muriform macroconidia called dictyospores.
Enriched thioglycolate medium Fungi
Hektoen enteric agar is used for recovery of Salmonella/Shigella
Enriched thioglycolate medium is used for differentiation of anaerobes
Sabourand dextrose agar is used for the cultivation of fungi
Rhodotorula is a yeast that may be found in:
The profusion of tiny microconidia lining up along the hyphae in this photomicrograph is characteristic of which of the following organisms?
Correct answer Trichophyton rubrum. Tiny microconidia lined up "birds on the fence" arrange along hyphal strand transversing field of view (yellow). 2 pencil-shaped, smooth walled macroconidia also seen in lower left field of view (red). Trichophyton verrucosum may prod microconidia in sm quant. However, they are irreg. arranged w/ little tendency line up along hyphae. Antler hyphae & string bean macroconidia charact of sp. One key character. in id of Epidermophyton floccosum is inability of dermatophyte to prod microconidia. 2-4-celled, club-shaped macroconidia are prod, usu in clusters of 2 or 3
The long pencil-shaped, multi-celled, thin, smooth-walled macroconidia illustrated in this photomicrograph are characteristic of:
Exserohilum species Bipolaris species Drechslera species
The genus name Exserohilum is derived from the nipple-like protrusion that extends from hilar cell. These conidia are long & pencil-shaped, w/ multiple cells enclosed in sac-like distosepta.
The conidia of Bipolaris and Drechslera sp also are multi-celled w/ cells separated by distosepta; however, they are more oval in outline & do not have a prominent hilar extension, as is characterisitic of Exserohilum sp, although blunt scar-like points of attachment may be observed.
The phenotypic property of Saccharomyces yeast species that is helpful in establishing its species identification is:
The identification of Saccharomyces species can be confirmed by looking for the formation of ascospores after incubation of a subculture on ascospore agar.
Torulopsis (Candida) glabrata has the unique characteristic of assimilating only glucose and trehalose.
Cryptococcus species is characterized by the production of a thick, polysaccharide capsule.
Which of the following species or organisms is the most likely to be the cause of mycotic keratitis (fungal eye infection)?
Fusarium species is the most likely associated with mycotic keratitis.
Trichophyton rubrum is a dermatophyte that commonly causes an itching, scaling skin infection of the feet, known as tinea pedis. Scedosporium apiospermum is commonly associated with sinusitis. Aspergillus niger typically causes otitis externa and can also be associated with sinusitis.
Id the arrowed, # cells from images of Wright-Giemsa stained bone marrow smears.
Id the arrowed, # cells from images of Wright-Giemsa stained bone marrow smears.
Cell #3 is a macrophage/histiocyte
Cell #4 is a normal monocyte
Which of the following can cause a false positive result for ketones?
(Choose ALL correct answers)
The part of the molecule responsible for differences among immunoglobulin classes is:
Bone marrow biopsies are helpful diagnostic tools in:
Bone marrow biopsies are NOT used as screens for hematologic issues during routine check-ups.
Technologist performing an ab id in blood bank recorded following results found in worksheet. Which ab are most likely cause of agglutination rxns in this patient's sample?
Match the type of endocrine dysfunction with the appropriate organ:
Your answers are on the left. The correct answers are on the right and highlighted.Choose Hypothalamus Pituitary gland Target gland
Corneal tissue may be transplanted successfully from one patient to another because:
Anti-corneal antibodies are easily suppressed
Which one of the following statements concerning Tamm-Horsfall protein is FALSE?
It is protein that is predominantely detected by a urine reagent strip test.
Tumor markers are especially valuable when used to:
Rule out cancer
Cell size is indicated by forward scatter and granularity is indicated by side scatter in flow cytometry.
There is a vaccine available to develop HIV specific immunity.
A negative glucose oxidase test and a positive test for reducing sugars in urine indicates:
All of the following cellular antigens are important to an immunohematologist except:
Blood group antigens
What sero-marker is the first marker to become positive in Hepatitis B and is associated with the infective stage?
Total iron-binding capacity measures the serum iron transporting capacity of:
In this photograph is an H & E-stained section of gastric biopsy obtained from suspected peptic ulcer disease. Based on the biopsy findings, the bacterial sps that would likely be recovered is:
Match substance(s) secreted with their respective blood groups:
Choose O A B AB A, B, & H
Which of the following cells is characterized by a thin rim of cytoplasm around the nucleus?
Match the names or the organisms listed with the bucket indicating whether each is cryophlic (can grow as low as 4°C) or is themophilic (grows at temperatures of 42°C or higher).
Choose Cryophilic Thermophylic
Which analyte measurement is used to detect early nephropathy in a diabetic patient?
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