Parathyroid hormone increases serum calcium levels by acting on what organ systems?
GI, renal, bone (VFC)
A lamb is stillborn, with grotesque deformations including cyclopia. Which toxic plant was likely consumed by the ewe during gestation?
Veratrum (skunk cabbage)
Paires serology (2 samples, 2-4 weeks apart) typical document rising plasma levels of ____ as a confirmatory test for many infectious disease.
By which mechanism does ethanol prevent ethylene glycol toxicosis?
Competitive inhibition. Alcohol dehydrogenase converts ingested ethylene glycol to glycoaldehyde (ultimately leading to oxalate formation and renal failure), but alcohol dehydrogenase has a great affinity for ethanol than ethylene glycol.
True or False: in monogastric animals, the site of greatest absorption of water in the gastrointestinal tract is the large intestine/colon
False - it is the jejunum. Common error: most of what the colon absorbs is water (few electrolytes or other substances), but less total volume of water than ileum or jejunum.
A patient's cerebrospinal fluid shows 20-50 RBC and 20-50 WBC/microliter. Are WBCs due to CNS inflammation or blood contamination from the procedure?
Inflammation. If WBC wer circulating blood contamination, there would be 1000 more RBC than WBC (VFC)
There are at least 4 indications for the use of antimicrobial combinations instead of antibiotic monotherapy. Name two.
Supereior efficiency in serious infections
Polymicrobial infections/broad-spectrum coverage
Prevention of emergence of resistance to 1 drug
Lower risk of toxicity
Streptococci are divided into 3 types based on hemolysis patterns when grown on blood agar plates. In which type are most of the pathogenic streptococci?
What are the 3 methods of reducing radiation exposure from external radiation sources?
1. increase distance from source
2. time: reducing duration of exposure
3. shielding: use of protective barriers
Which parasitic infestation in a dog can cause pseudo-hypoadrenocorticism?
Trichuris vulpis - hyponatremia, hyperkalemia
Pacheco's disease is cause by a virus of which class?
What are the site of action, effect, of botulinum toxin?
prevents presynaptic release of ACh at neuromuscular junction --flaccid paralysis, ANS disturbances.
Name 3 effects of atropine.
Xerostomia (decreased salivation)
Decrease GI motility
The resorptive capacity of the proximal renal tubule is exceeded when the blood glucose concentration exceed which value (renal threshold) in the horse or dog?
180 mg/dl (10 mmol/L)
What are the intermediate hosts of Paragonimus kellicotti?
snails, crayfish (VFC)
Which hematological changes are typical for acute disease associated with Ehrlichia canis infection?
Variable degrees of thrombocytopenia +/- leukopenia +/- anemia (VFC)
Adenocarcinoma of which organ has been associated with paraneoplastic alopecia in cats?
Ingestion of a tall grass by cattle can cause toxicosis manifesting as lameness and ultimately dry necrosis of extremitites. Which type of grass is responsible?
Which adverse effect involving the urinary tract can the antineoplastic drug cyclophosphamide cause?
Sterile hemorrhagic cystitis, cause by the drug metabolite acrolein
When administering intravenous fluids that contain supplemental potassium chloride (and assuming the animal has normal renal function), the rate of potassium infusion should not exceed
A. 0.5 mEq/kg/hr
B. 5 mEg/kg/hr
C. 50 mEg/kg/hr
A. 0.5 mEg/kg/hr
What is the vector for West Nile virus?
mosquito (Culex spp.)
What is the toxin that causes tick paralysis?
Salivary neurotoxin (produced by certain gravid female tick species)
Which components of the eye make up the uvea?
Choroid, ciliary body, iris
Is the peritoneopericardial diaphragmatic hernia (PPDH) more likely to be congential or acquired?
Always congenital. A true diaphragmatic hernia is usually trauma-induced.
Which disorder may results from in utero infections with feline panleukopenia virus in cats or BVDV in cattle?
Which renal syndrome causes primary urinary loss of glucose, amino acids, and phosphate with concurrent renal tubular acidosis?
In the ox the "pin bone" refers to which anatomic structure?
ischiatic tuberosity (VFC)
Closure of which 2 structures is resonsible for the second heart sound?
2 semilunar valves (aortic and pulmonic)
In rabies, what is the incubation period, and once clinical signs are apparent, what is the expected survival time?
Incubation: up to 6 months
Maximal survial after onset of signs: 10 days, irrespective of species
Which nerve and associated spinal cord segments does the patellar reflex test?
Femoral nerve (spinal segments L4-6)
Which paired vessel can safely be ligated bilaterally to treat patients that have intractable epistaxis?
Common carotid arteries (vertebral arteries provide collateral supply to the head)
What is the renal hormone responsible for stimulating production of RBC?
What are the major hemostatic alterations seen in advanced cases of DIC?
Prolonged PT and aPTT
Decreased antithrombin III
Does an animal with paresis, hyperreflexia, and disuse atrophy that is mild and slow to develop have UMN or LMN disease of the affected area?
What is the ECG characteristic that defines first-degree AV block?
prolonged PR interval (VFC)
Which mite is a normal commensal organism on the skin?
E. none of the above
After leaving the heart, the aorta and pulmonary trunk are joined by what distinct structure in a normal adult?
Ligamentum arteriosum (VFC)
This drug can be given SQ to a female 5 mintutes before neonates are allowed to suckle to encourage milk letdown following C-section
Which parasite of white-tailed deer causes neurologic deficits as a results of larval migration in camelids as an abberant host
Parelaphostrongylus tenius (VFC)
What is the most likely origin of bacterial contaminants in surgaical wounds?
A. endogenous flora
C. surgical team
endogenous flora (VFC)
What is glargine?
A long-acting insulin analog and an excellent choice for treating diabetic cats (VFC)
What is the common name for mandibular osteomyelitis of llamas caused by Actinomyces?
Lumpy jaw (VFC)
What is flail chest?
A segemtn of the chest wall created by 2 or more fractures of 2 or more adjacent ribs (segment paradoxically moves into the chest during inspiration, outwaard during expiration)
What is the significance of pitting edema (as opposed to nonpitting)?
Pitting is the persistence of a depression when pressure is applied to the swollen area, and it indicates intercellular fluid excess (interstitial edema). nonpitting occurs with intracellular fluid excess (wheals)
Which 2 zones of the adrenal cortex are prefeentially destroyed by mitotane?
Zona fasciculata, zona reticularis (VFC)
Suture material with which characteristics should be used in infected wounds?
sterile monofilament absorable (pds or maxon) to reduce risk of persistent infection (VFC)
What is a tension pneumonthorax?
Air inthe pleural space, where air continues to enter the pleural space but cannot exit "one-way valve" effect of lesions causing pneumothorax (VFC)
Basophilic, broad-based bussing yeast forms, and higher prevalence near water, are characteristics of which pathogenic fungus?
Blastomyces dermatitidis (VFC)
With respect to respiratory sounds, what is the difference between stertor and stridor?
Stertor is deep guttural sound caused by vibration of the pahrynx
Stridor is an inspiratory stenotic whistle-like sound, such as occurs with decreased larynx diameter from edema or abscess
Insussusscpetum, intussuscipiens: which is on the inside, which is on the outside?
An intussusception has an invaginated intussusceptum, surrounded by the intussuscipiens
Silybin and s-adenosylmethionine are used for treating acute injury to which organ system?
What is the name of the congenital sternal malformation where the caudal sternum has a dorsal deviation into the thoracic cavity?
opposite is called pectus carinatum (VFC)
What are the 2 components of the intervertebral disk?
Nucleus pulposus and annulus fibrosus (VFC)
What is the timing of the murmur caused by aortic valve insufficiency?
Butorphanol administered to horses, loperamide (imodium-ad) adminstered to cats, and acepromazine adminstered to dogs, all may cause which type of adverse effect?
profound excitement/cns stimulation (VFC)
What is the preferred method for preventing leishmaniasis?
avoidance of expposure to the vector, the sandfly. there is no vaccine
In neurology, what is meant by the term "root signature?"
Lameness and pain resulting from reduced sensation in a nerve root or sensory nerve of the cervical or lumbosacral intumescence. it usually is a result of nerve compression.
the coagulation factors are numbered rom I to XIII. However, there are only 12. Which factor does not exist?
Factor VI (VFC)
How is a comminuted facture defined?
More than 2 fragments (vfc)
Which species of Cryptosporidium found commonly in cattle is considered zoonotic?
cryptosporidium parvum (VFC)
in cattle, which branch of which nerve is responsible for pain caused by dehorning?
Cornual nerve, branch of zygomaticotemporal division of maxillary nerve off the trigeminal (VFC)
Viborg's triangle is important in horses to outline approach to guttural pouch. its boundaires are:
1. ramus of mandible
2. tendon of sternocephalicus
3. linguofacial vein
A functional corpus luteum is lysed by which hormone normally produced by the endometrium?
Prostaglandin F 2 alpha (PGF2a)
What is distinctive about the macroscopic appearance of emale Hemonchus worms?
barber pole appearance (VFC)
Anterior uveitis and corneal edema (blue eye) are hallmarks of which canine viral disease?
Which synthetic absorbable suture material retains tensile strength for the longest period of time?
B. polyglycolic acid
What are the 4 components of tetralogy of Fallot?
ventricular septal defect
dextropositioning of the aorta
right ventricular concentric hypertrophy
in small animals, what is the most liekly anatomic location (small or large bowel) of a lesion when diarrhea is characterized by weight loss, large volume of liquid fees, and melena?
small bowel diarrhea (VFC)
Which effect is excessive estrogen classically described as having on the bone marrow?
destruction leading to pancytopenia and aplastic anemai (VFC)
Tissue transplated from one site to another in the same patient is called an ____
one pt to another of same species: allograft
one species to another: xenograft
What is the neuroanatomic cause of extensor rigidity in the forelimbs of a cat with Schiff-Sherrington syndrome?
A - Polyradiculoneurtitis of peripheral nerve sheaths at cervical intumescence B - Brachial plexus trauma C - Subdural white matter compression at C6-T3 D - Damage to thoracic spinocerebellar tracts in superficial white matter E - Interruption of inhibitory neuron input from lumbar spinal cord
E - Interruption of inhibitory neuron input from lumbar spinal cord
Which one of the following hormones can induce neoplastic transformation of hypertrophied mammary tissue in cats?
A - Prolactin B - Progesterone C - Testosterone D - Estrogen E - Oxytocin
B - Progesterone
A litter of one day old kittens presents with anemia, icterus, and tail tip necrosis. Which one of the following choices is the most likely differential diagnosis?
A - Neonatal septicemia B - Pyruvate kinase deficiency C - Liver disease D - Neonatal isoerythrolysis E - Hemobartonella felis infection
D - Neonatal isoerythrolysis
Why is CSF tap contraindicated in patients displaying clinical signs of increased intracranial pressure?
Increased risk of brain herniation (VFC)
Why would a small litter size a jill to prolonged gestation, leading to fetal death?
small litters may not trigger hormonal stimuli that initiate parturition, leading to prolonged gestation, fetal overgrowth, and dystocia (VFC)
A farmer presents a calf due to "dropping" of the hip and hock. On examination, you identify right hindlimb paresis, with overflexion of the fetlock. One week prior to presentation, the calf received an IM injection in the same limb. What is the most likely diagnosis?
injection-induced sciatic nerve paralysis (VFC)
name the 4 developmental zones of the physis
reserve, proliferation, hypertrophy, and mineralization
Zone of resting cartilage cells or Undifferentiated Zone Zone of proliferating cartilage Hypertrophic cell zone or Zone of maturation Zone of provisional calcification
A herd of 12 multiparous broodmares housed on a 25 acre pasture in the southeastern United States are having reproductive problems.
Of the three mares that have foaled so far this year, none have produced milk. Another mare is now 12 months in foal and has no udder development.
Which one of the following choices is the most likely diagnosis?
A - Fescue toxicity B - Retained placentas C - Mastitis D - Malnutrition E - Placentitis
A - Fescue toxicity
You are presented a healthy 10 yr old maiden mare for breeding evaluation in January. On rectal palpation, both ovaries have multiple, small (less than 15 mm) follicles and no corpus lutea. The uterus is flaccid with no edema.
Which one of the following choices is the most likely explanation of the findings in this mare?
A - The mare is in diestrus B - Seasonal anestrus is present C - Estrus has just passed D - The mare is too old and now is infertile E - Early pregnancy
B - Seasonal anestrus is present
Potassium bromide is not typically used in cats due to which potential complication?
Asthma-like symptoms (VFC)
A middle-aged pointer is acutely paraplegic, with no history of trauma. Tomographic imaging shows mild spinal cord swelling from T11 to L3 without cord compression or mass effect. What is your treatment approach?
C. nursing care
C. nursing care
presumed FCE - anticoagulants and surgery are contraindicated
B - Distal humeral condyle fracture (zuku)
In dogs, and enlarged sternal ("rostrosternal" or ventral thoracic) lymph node can be visible radiographically. Which important antatomic region does it drain, in addition to the ribs, sternum, pleura, and thymus?
The peritoneal cavity, and possibly the mammary glands (VFC)
Abdominal ultrasonography reveals renal pelvic dilation to a width of 5 mm in a cat, but the cat is receiving IV fluids. Is this more consistent with pyelonephritis, or is it just attributable to the fluid therapy?
More consistent with pyelonephritis; fluid therapy has not been shown to reveal pelvic dilatation of this magnitude. Renal pelvic dilatation can be reliably detected using abdominal ultrasound in cats with otherwise clinically normal renal function in cases of renal insufficiency, pyelonephritis, or outflow obstruction. Nevertheless, renal pelvic width varies substantially within groups and should be interpreted with caution.
Which one of the following choices is a major clinical complication of equine pituitary pars intermedia dysfunction?
A - Colic B - Circling, Head-pressing C - Dyshormonogenetic goiter D - Laminitis E - Diabetes insipidus
D - Laminitis
During a routine immunization visit for a 2 year-old neutered male Newfoundland dog, a systolic murmur is detected which is heard loudest on the left side of the chest between the 2nd and 5th intercostal (IC) space and at the thoracic inlet lateral to the trachea.
Which condition is highest on a differential diagnosis list?
A - Aortic stenosis B - Mitral dysplasia C - Patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) D - Tricuspid dysplasia E - Pulmonic stenosis
A - Aortic stenosis
Which bacterium in cattle is responsible for "lumpy jaw?"
Actinomyces bovis (VFC)
What is the primary clinical presentation in chickens infected with Campylobacter jejuni?
A - Hemorrhagic diathesis B - Enterocolitis C - Diptheritic tracheitis D - Nothing E - Depression, anorexia, lethargy
D - Nothing
only causes disease in humans
C - Spastic paresis
The causative agent of Lyme disease is...
Borrelia burgdorferi via Ixodes scapularis (tick)
A - Estrus
B - Clostridium perfringens Type C
C - Chlamydophila spp
What are ongoing losses in fluid therapy?
A - Percent dehydration multiplied by body weight B - Vomit and diarrhea C - The tears I shed when I can't make sense of fluid calculations D - Fluids given minus extracellular volume estimate E - Urine output
B - Vomit and diarrhea
A newborn foal with hypoxic ischemic encephalopathy and a poor suckle response is being treated supportively with mare's milk via nasogastric tube, IV fluids with 5% dextrose and broad spectrum antibiotics. What other treatment is often critical to caring for foals like this?
A - Mannitol B - Famotidine C - Diazepam D - Isoxuprine HCL E - Metoclopramide
C - Diazepam
How many pairs of ribs do ferrets have?
15. compare with dog: 13; horse: 18 (besides arabians, which may have 17)
What is the most common sign of Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae in pigs?
Dry cough (VFC)
B - Ascaris
After diagnosis of appendicular osteosarcoma in a dog, the leg is amputated and chemotherapy is initiated. At follow-up monitoring exam 3 months later, thoracic radiographs are clear. What finding would suggest a guarded prognosis?
A - Elevated albumin, depressed globulin B - Polycythemia C - Microcytosis D - Elevated alkaline phosphatase E - Depressed calcium-phosphorus ratio
D - Elevated alkaline phosphatase
A dog presents with a history of eating a shiny new United States penny that was hidden in a piece of birthday cake.
What problem may result?
A - Nickel toxicity B - Molybdenum poisoning C - Lead poisoning D - Iron poisoning E - Zinc toxicity
E - Zinc toxicity
Plants from the genus Lantana can be toxic to cattle - name 2 organ systems affected.
liver (hepatotoxicosis) and skin (photosensitization)
Name 2 erythrocyte features that are found in normal Akitas but are not found in most other dog breeds.
High potassium, microcytosis (VFC)
A - Ensure adequate colostrum uptake
A valuable female show dog is approaching estrus and the owner wants her bred by artificial insemination to one of the most successful and expensive stud dogs in the country. What testing method is most accurate to insure optimum timing for breeding the bitch?
A - Progesterone assays B - LH monitoring C - Vaginoscopy D - Estrogen levels E - Vaginal cytology
B - LH monitoring
C - Bone biopsy and bacterial culture
lytic bone lesion - must differentiate between infection and neoplasia. this is prob due to osteomyelitis of p2-3, prob staph
After a week and a half of rain, numerous individuals of a flock of sheep exhibit matted, discolored, malodorous fleece. What is the likely diagnosis?
A dog owner forgets to give heartworm preventive for 4 months. What is the best option?
A. Restart preventative and check an antigen test next year.
B. Administer doxycycline for the next 3 months, then check and Ag test
C. Give an adulticide now and 2 doses 24 hours apart 1 month from now.
A. Restart preventative and check an antigen test next year.
...although, no need to wait a full year...every 6 months probably
Initially after rapid blood loss, the hematocrit will remain normal. How long after the onset of hemorrhage does interstitial fluid begin to shift into the vasculature, causing dilution of the erythrocye mass?
2 hours (and lasting up to 24 hours) (VFC)
Which one of the following ectoparasites normally spends its entire life cycle on the chicken, causing feather damage, anemia and irritation?
A - Red chicken mite B - Trombicula alfreddugesi C - Dermanyssus gallinae D - Northern fowl mite E - Neocnemidocoptes gallinae
D - Northern fowl mite
Ornithonyssus sylviarum ..here's a pic: http://a248.e.akamai.net/7/248/430/20060217203629/www.merckvetmanual.com/mvm/img/bgraph/pouec05.jpg
6-yo Standardbred jumper presented with 3-month hx of poor performance and intermittent shifting hindleg lameness. PE: poor muscling of the gluteal muscles, some asymmetry to the croup (rump), 7 cm. swelling over hindquarters on left dorsal side, shows pain and a reluctance to ventroflex the back with midline pressure. Rectal: crepitation and shifting felt dorsally as P walks slowly forward. What is the diagnosis?
A - Fibrotic ossifying myopathy
B - Overlapping vertebral spinous processes
C - Croup myopathy (longissimus dorsi, supraspinous ligament)
D - Sacroiliac subluxation
E - Coxofemoral luxation
D - Sacroiliac subluxation
-coxofemoral luxation extremely rare in horses - deep acetabulum
-overlapping spinous processes occurs in the thoracic and lumbar vertebrae of the saddle area
-***back muscle and ligament strain is #1 cause of back pain in horses, usually associated with longissimus dorsi, sublumbar iliospoas,supraspinatus ligament
What is the most common clinical sign exhibited by a horse with cystic calculi (bladder stones)?
A - Colic B - Uremic breath and urethral ulcers C - Straining to defecate D - Inappetance E - Hematuria after exercise
E - Hematuria after exercise
Where should a feline leukemia (FeLV) vaccine be injected?
A - Below stifle, lateral right hind B - Above stifle, lateral right hind C - Above stifle, lateral left hind D - Below stifle, lateral left hind E - Cervical interscapular region
D - Below stifle, lateral left hind
Which one of the following diseases is characterized by schistocytes on a complete blood count?
A - Disseminated intravascular coagulation B - Systemic lupus erythematosus C - Methemoglobinemia D - Acetaminophen toxicity E - Cyanocobalamin deficiency
A - Disseminated intravascular coagulation
A dog that was treated for vomiting with metoclopramide is now displaying involuntary muscle spasms and inappropriate aggression. Which one of the following choices is most appropriate to help reverse the adverse effects?
A - Yohimbine B - Ace-promazine C - Diphenhydramine hydrochloride D - Telazol (tiletamine-diazepam combination) E - Ketamine
C - Diphenhydramine hydrochloride
Metoclopramide crosses the BBB, where dopamine antagonism at the medullary (CRTZ) causes an antiemetic effect. This dopamine antagonism can also cause adverse extrapyramidal signs, like involuntary muscle spasms, motor restlessness and inappropriate aggression. If recognized in time, extrapyramidal signs can be reversed by restoring the dopamine:acetylcholine balance with the anticholinergic action of an antihistamine like diphenhydramine hydrochloride.
The Animal Welfare Act is enforced by which U.S. government agency?
A - National Institute of Health (NIH) B - Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) C - Institutional Animal Care and Use Committee (IACUC) D - Department of Agriculture (USDA) E - Food and Drug Administration (FDA)
D - Department of Agriculture (USDA)
(zuku...FUCK vet issues!!!)
A multiparous cow that calved two months ago is presented with hx of blood-stained urine for a week. P is off-feed and colicky, switching her tail restlessly and urinating frequently. Mildly pyrexic, very mildly tachypnic.A cowside dipstick test shows hematuria and proteinuria. The bladder, ureters and left kidney feel grossly normal on rectal exam.What is the most likely diagnosis?
A - Polycystic kidney disease B - Pyelonephritis C - Leptospirosis D - Pyometra E - Dioctophyma renale
B - Pyelonephritis
(usually Corynebacterium spp or E. coli)
4-yo QH mare is presented with eye discharge and urine-scald. No other horses on the farm are sick. PE: corneal ulcer and keratitis OS (left eye), atrophy of the temporal and masseter muscles. There is decreased perineal sensation, a weak tail and weak anal sphincter with retained manure. P is BAR, TPR -> pyrexic.What is the most likely diagnosis?
A - Equine degenerative myelopathy (EDM) B - Equine protozoal myelopathy (EPM) C - Nigropallidal encephalomalacia D - Botulism E - Cauda equina neuritis
E - Cauda equina neuritis
Horses with Cauda equina neuritis (also called polyneuritis equi) have a progressive symetric LMN paresis of the tail, bladder, rectum, anal sphincter. May see hind limb paresis if lumbosacral spinal cord is affected. Cranial nerves can also be affected, but typically cranial involvement is asymetric. May see temporal or masseter atrophy (Cranial Nerve 5), facial paralysis and exposure keratitis (Cranial nerve 7), head tilt or other CNS signs. Cause unknown, may be autoimmune. Grave prognosis, eventually euthanize.
B - Many dogs relapse within a year
C - Ivermectin now, repeat in 4 months
Onchocerca. Adult filaria live in calcified nodules in the ligamentum nuchae and produce microfilaria that migrate to the ventral midline, face, neck, and chest. The resulting dermatitis is thought to be a hypersensitivity to microfilarial antigens. Accumulation of microfilaria in the eye may also lead to conjunctivitis and uveitis. Note: spread by Culicoides (no-see-ums, biting midges).
A few sheep are sick at a petting-zoo with cows, horses, pigs, bison and white-tailed deer. One deer also sick. The sheep are listless, off-feed, serous/mucopurulent nasal discharge, fever. PE: swollen muzzles, edema/congestion of the lips, nose and face, small hemorrhages/ulcers on MM. The ulcers appear where the teeth contact the swollen lips and tongue. Two affected sheep are lame. What is the diagnosis?
A - Caprine arthritis encephalitis B - Contagious ecthyma (soremouth)
C - Peste des petits ruminants (PPR)
D - Foot-and-mouth disease (FMD)
E - Bluetongue
E - Bluetongue
Cat with previous diagnosis of diabetes mellitus confirmed by persistent fasting hyperglycemia and persistent glycosuria is presented for routine check-up. The owner relates that she ran out of injectable insulin two months ago, but the cat seemed to do fine without it, so she stopped giving insulin shots.On physical exam, the cat appears healthy and a dipstick test shows a blood glucose level of 125 mg/dL (normal 61-132 mg/dL) What is the most likely explanation?
A - Incorrect initial diagnosis
B - Transient diabetes mellitus
C - Type 1 diabetes mellitus
D - Insulin resistance
E - Concurrent diabetes insipidus
B - Transient diabetes mellitus
20% of cats may have transient or subclinical diabetes mellitus characterized by resolution of the clinical weeks to months after beginning insulin treatment. Clinical disease may or may not recur in the future.
3yo MN Weimaraner presented with two day hx of worsening anorexia, lethargy, cough and exercise intolerance. PE: pale MM w/ a few petechiae. TPR -> tachypnic. Coag profile: thrombocyte count, bucosal bleeding time, thrombin time, fibrin degradation products = all normal; aPPT, PT = increased. What is the diagnosis?
A - Neonatal isoerythrolysis B - Idiopathic thrombocytopenia C - Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) D - Anticoagulant rodenticide toxicity E - Von Willebrand's disease
4-yo thoroughbred mare with sudden onset of profuse, watery diarrhea and marked depression. P intermittently treated with phenylbutazone over the last 2 months for minor lameness and was transported by trailer for 9 hours recently. PE: dehydrated, slow capillary refill time, purplish MM, cold extremities, tachycardia, tachypnea, increased PCV. P dies 3 hours later. Necropsy: blood-stained fluid in intestines, pronounced edema & hemorrhage inwall of large colon and cecum. What is the likely diagnosis?
A - Sand enterocolopathy
B - NSAID toxicosis
C - Granulomatous enteritis
D - Parascaris equorum infestation
E - Colitis X
E - Colitis X
Colitis X: an acute to peracute-onset of lethal diarrheal disease of horses. Look for shock signs, peracute severe diarrhea and a packed red cell volume (PCV) above 65%, and sudden death. The cause is unknown but stress (like transport) or surgery often precedes disease. Diagnosis of exclusion - rule out other severe diarrheas (Salmonella, etc.).
When a foal is being treated with erythromycin (for Rhodococcus equi for example), the mare is at risk of developing enterocolitis due to which one of the following organisms?
A - Lawsonia intracellularis B - Clostridium difficile C - Rhodococcus equi D - Escherechia coli E - Clostridium novyi
B - Clostridium difficile
Several younger sheep in a large herd have died suddenly with a diagnosis of infectious necrotic hepatitis secondary to fluke infestation. Which one of the following choices is the most practical and effective control measure?
A - Clorsulon antihelmintic for whole herd B - High-dose penicillin for clinical cases C - Treat ponds with copper sulfate molluscicide against lymnaeid snails
D - Vaccinate all animals with Clostridium novyi toxoid
E - Clostridium hemolyticum bacterin for all animals under 3 years
D - Vaccinate all animals with Clostridium novyi toxoid
molluscicides would help too, but much more expensive (not "most practical"...dumb).
An adult horse with clinical signs of voluminous gastric reflux, depression, colic, and fever is most likely suffering from which one of the following choices?
A - Proximal enteritis B - Ulcerative duodenitis C - Proliferative enteropathy D - Right dorsal colitis E - Cantharidin toxicity
A - Proximal enteritis
important possible sequela --> laminitis!
4-day-old foal with clinical signs of depression, icterus, head pressing, and disorientation. Serum biochemistry reveals increased levels of GGT, ALKP, and unconjugated bilirubin.O mentions that he gave the foal an oral nutritional supplement when it was a day old but was not sure what was in it. What did the supplement likely contain?
A - Vitamin A B - Vitamin E C - Selenium D - Iron E - Copper
D - Iron
Heat pasteurization of milk is done principally to prevent transmission of which one of the following organisms to people?
A - Mycobacterium avium subspecies paratuberculosis B - Mycobacterium bovis C - Mycobacterium avium D - Enterotoxigenic Escherichia coli O157:H7 E - Mycobacterium tuberculosis
B - Mycobacterium bovis
...i canNOT believe IPE just became relevant.
D - Actinobacillus pleuropneumoniae
A foal born 12 hours ago is observed swishing its tail from side to side, straining with an arched back and rolling on the stall floor. What test is indicated to rule in the presumptive diagnosis?
A - Ultrasound of umbilicus/urachus B - Succussion of right caudal abdomen C - Digital exam of rectum D - Cystocentesis E - Endoscopy of gastric mucosa
C - Digital exam of rectum
E - Anaplasmosis
The lesions of chronic Salmonella pullorum in poultry are indistinguishable from the lesions of which disease?
A - Fowl cholera B - Samonella arizonae C - Fowl typhoid D - Samonella enteritidis E - Coronaviral enteritis
C - Fowl typhoid
12 yo MN cat presented with hx vomiting, weight loss, polyphagia, PU/PD (recent urinary accidents in the house). PE: the patient is unthrifty and tachycardic with a moderate systolic heart murmur, loudest on the left. CBC/chem wnl except increased LDH, ALT, ALKP, glucose, BUN. TBIL is 0.2, high normal. UA wnl except low USG (1.017) and mild RBCs. Which test confirms your diagnosis?
A - Fasting blood glucose B - Serum total T4 C - Echocardiogram D - ACTH stimulation test E - Hepatic biopsy
B - Serum total T4
Which one of the following antibiotics is the treatment of choice in the face of a vibriosis abortion storm?
A - Tetracycline B - Fluoroquinolone C - Chloramphenicol D - Cephalosporin E - Aminoglycoside
A - Tetracycline
Which one of the following drugs is used primarily to treat pituitary-dependent hyperadrenocorticism (Cushing's disease) in dogs?
A - Phenoxybenzamine B - Liothyronine C - Imidocarb D - Mitotane (o,p DDD) E - Fludrocortisone acetate
D - Mitotane
selectively destroys the glucocorticoid-secreting cells of the adrenal cortex. This is extreme treatment. First line therapy is Deprenyl (decreases pituitary ACTH secretion) or Ketoconazole (inhibits enzymes of cortisol synthesis), switch to mitotane or Trilostane if unresponsive. Mitotane and Trilostane cause adrenal necrosis and can cause Addisonian crisis/kill your patient!!!
REMEMBER dogs undergoing mitotane therapy should receive supplementary glucocorticoids when undergoing stress (ie: surgery, trauma, acute illness).
E - Osteosarcoma
Which disease of rabbits is reportable?
A - Encephalitozoonosis B - Treponematosis C - Tularemia D - Myxomatosis E - Rabbit (Shope) Fibroma Virus
C - Tularemia
Obese 6-yo MN Pomeranian presents w/ 2-year hx of intermittent dry, honking cough. This morning he started retching. P never boards in a kennel and has not traveled recently. PE: cough elicited upon tracheal palpation. Heart murmur noted, loudest at left 5th-6th intercostal space. TP wnl, RR = 8, CRT=2, MM pink. Rest of the exam WNL.What diagnosis is at the top of the differential list?
A - Congestive heart disease
B - Chronic bronchitis
C - Tracheal obstruction
D - Tracheal collapse
E - Tracheobronchitis
D - Tracheal collapse
E - Foothill abortion agent
aka Epizootic Abortion Agent.etiologic agent has not been identified with certainty. Research suggests that it is a delta protobacteria with DNA homology to bacteria of the vibrio genus. Pregnant cattle exposed to thymic tissues from aborted fetuses can be protected from abortion by feeding tetracycline through the early stages of pregnancy. transmitted by the soft shelled Pajahuello tick (Ornithodorus coriaceus)
A mare presents w/ hx of herding and mounting other mares in a broodmare group. PE, the mare is very unruly and tries to bite and kick. After sedation, rectal palpation findings reveal a walnut sized, smooth left ovary and softball sized right ovary. No ovulation fossa palpable on the right ovary. Which one of the following choices is the most likely diagnosis for the right ovary?
A - Granulosa cell tumor B - Cystic ovary C - Anovulatory follicle D - Transitional status E - Hematoma
Approximately 50-90% of mares with GCTs have elevated testosterone and over 85% of mares with GCTs have high inhibin.
With GCTs the contralateral ovary tends to stop producing follicles and resembles an ovary during anestrus.
What kind of organism causes Equine granulocytic ehrlichiosis?
A - Protozoa B - Chlamydia C - Erhlichia D - Spirochete E - Anaplasma
E - Anaplasma
3-yo Charolais bull, 2100 lbs, found at pasture walking in circles. Been fed silage enriched with 5% dried chicken litter in addition to the winter pasture. T = 104.6, HR low, RR normal. P depressed, anorectic, drooling, head tilt to right. OD and AD droop. P ataxic w/ mostly right sided proprioceptive deficits. CSF taken at lumbosacral space has normal color, no turbidity, w/ high mononuclear cell count and protein concentration.Which one of the following choices is the most likely diagnosis?
A - Otitis media/interna
B - Rabies
C - Nervous coccidiosis
D - Listeriosis
E - Thromboembolic meningoencephalitis
D - Listeriosis
At what age do a cow's permanent canine teeth begin to erupt?
A - 3 years B - Cows don't have canines C - 3.5 to 4 years D - 2 to 2.5 years E - 5-6 years
C - 3.5 to 4 years (zuku)
2-week old calf presented for dehydrated and emaciated from weight loss. 1 week hx watery, foamy diarrhea, tenesmus during exam. P is only sick one in a mixed group of calves that range from 3 weeks to 2 months of age What is the diagnosis?
A - Coronavirus B - Coccidiosis C - Colibacillosis D - Ostertagiasis E - Cryptosporidiosis
E - Cryptosporidiosis (zuku)
1 calf 1-4 weeks think crypto
1 calf 1-4 days think colibacillosis
>1 calf 1-4 days think rotavirus or coronavirus
older calves think osteragia, coccidiosis
2-month old calf found dead. The night before this calf was weak, feverish, had a mucoid brown diarrhea with a small amount of blood and a nasty odor. Necropsy reveals a pseudo-diptheritic membrane lining parts of the distal small bowel and large bowel. What is the diagnosis?
A - Salmonellosis B - Coccidiosis C - Ostertagiasis D - Cryptosporidiosis E - Bovine Viral Diarrhea, mucosal form
A - Salmonellosis (zuku)
Which three diseases are on the differential diagnosis list when encountering sudden death in a young, fast-growing calf?
A - Lasalocid toxicity, Salmonellosis, Lymphosarcoma-juvenile form B - Bovine Viral Diarrhea, Lasalocid toxicity, White muscle disease C - White muscle disease, Enterotoxemia, Colibacillosis D - Winter dysentery, Enterotoxemia, IBR-encephalitic form E - Salmonellosis, Colibacillosis, Enzootic Calf Pneumonia
C - White muscle disease, Enterotoxemia, Colibacillosis (zuku)
also encephalitic IBR and Salmonellosis
2-year old heifer is dead. P was stunted compared to herdmates, had 3wk hx poor appetite, unthriftiness, diarrhea. Necropsy reveals abomasum is edematous and covered in small umbilicated nodules 1-2 mm in diameter (cobblestone or "Moroccan leather" appearance). Several other younger cows now look unthrifty and have diarrhea too. What is the plan of action?
A - Cull the sick cows, Keep horses off same pasture 3 months
B - Treat affected heifers with Albendazole
C - Treat affected heifers with Ivermectin, repeat in 6 months
D - Treat herd with Amprolium, repeat q 5 weeks
E - Deworm cows post-calving, calves by midsummer,all stock in fall
E - Deworm cows post-calving, calves by midsummer,all stock in fall (zuku)
A postpartum down cow is being treated for Milk fever with a slow IV of Calcium gluconate. During treatment, the heart is ausculted and pulses in the facial artery are monitored. What changes are expected as the treatment progresses?
A - Arrhythmia changing to steady rhythm B - Tachycardia slowing to bradycardia, pulse strength about the same
C - Bradycardia, weak pulse, changing to tachycardia, +/- arrhythmia
D - Tachycardia, weak pulse slowing to bradycardia, strong pulse
E - Bradycardia, weak pulse, speeding up to tachycardia, strong pulse
D - Tachycardia, weak pulse slowing to bradycardia, strong pulse (zuku)
A bovine diet that is low in thiamine or high in sulfur can cause ____________.
A - Pregnancy toxemia B - Polioencephalomalacia C - Downer cows D - Pseudorabies E - Parturient paresis
B - Polioencephalomalacia (zuku)
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