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Which ligament anchors the lateral pole of the ovary?
In the normal bladder, echogenic urine indicates which technical error?
High overall gain
Select the term describing anatomy on the opposite side of the abdomen.
What is the process the follicle undergoes if it fails to mature?
Identify the structure between the arrows.
Which variant has the uterus tipping toward the abdominal wall?
Which vessels provide a landmark for finding the ovaries?
Identify the anatomy labeled B.
Identify the anatomy labeled A.
Select the imaginary line that separates the true and false pelvis.
Select the physics process occurring between the solid arrows.
Identify the uterine vasculature indicated by A
Which of the following is the inner layer of the bladder?
Identify the anatomy between the arrows.
Choose the transitional portion of the uterus.
Select the muscle located in the true pelvis.
What term describes this uterus?
Identify the potential space located between the uterus and rectum.
Select the technical parameter, which increases image detail during the endovaginal exam.
Reduce the sector width.
Select the organ found in the false pelvis.
Select the vessel that drains directly into the left renal vein.
Left ovarian vein
Which ligament has the ovaries attached on the posterior portion?
Identify the anatomy located (D).
A rapid increase in a uterine mass in a 30 year old woman raises suspicion for
gestational trophoblastic disease
Choose the differential for sonographic findings of hydrosalpinx in a 50 year old female patient.
Fallopian tube carcinoma
Identify the risk factor associated with endometrial cancer.
Post coital bleeding is a symptom of ___________ cancer.
Select the drug that increases the risk of endometrial cancer.
Select the karyotype seen with a partial mole.
Select the least common gynecological malignancy.
Fallopian tube carcinoma
Select the ovarian cyst that occurs with one fourth of patients with placental trophoblastic disease.
Tamoxifen therapy for breast cancer raises the risk of _________.
The extensive chorionic villi invasion is characteristic of a(n)
What type of uterine malformation results in daughters of diethylstilbestrol (DES) users?
Which of the following is a sonographic finding for uterine sarcomas?
Rapidly growing heterogeneous mass
Which of the following is used to help stage endometrial carcinoma?
Involvement of the cervix
An 18 year old presents to the department with complaints of intermittent left lower quadrant pain. Though she has nost missed any periods, her clinician ran a pregnancy test came up positive. The sonographic exam revealed a solid mass with calcifications and multiple small cysts in the left side apart from the uterus. What is the most likely cause for these findings?
Choose the FIGO stage for cancer limited to one ovary, capsule intact and free of tumor, no ascites, and negative peritoneal cytology.
Choose the TNM stage for cancer with growth beyond the pelvis, retroperitoneal or inguinal nodes or intraperitoneal omental implants and superficial liver metastases.
Choose the least common malignant ovarian cancer.
Identify the malignant ovarian tumor that is the result of metastasis to the ovary.
Identify the structure indicated by the solid arrow.
Select the ovarian volume seen in the postmenopausal woman not using hormones.
5.8 cm3 (±3.6)
Which form of ovarian cancer demonstrated prominent color Doppler flow in septations?
Which neoplasm is associated with gondal dysgenesis?
Which of the following increases a woman's risk for developing ovarian cancer?
15 year history of post-menopausal estrogen therapy
Which of the following is a tumor marker for colon, stomach, breast, or ovarian carcinomas?
Carcinoembryonic antigen (CEA)
Which of the following is pseudomyxoma peritonei?
Mucinous material accumulation within the peritoneal cavity
A set routine performance of an examination is called a(an)
How many live pregnancies has a patient had with the following obstetric coding (G6P3 A2T3)?
Select the current gold standard for sonographic certification
American Registry of Diagnostic Medical Sonography (ARDMS)
Select the transducer which would be the best selection to image an obese third trimester patient.
2.5 MHz curved linear
The simultaneous display of 2D, color, and spectral doppler is called
What is the importance of entering previous obstetric data into the patient charts?
allows growth trending
Which of the following indicates a patient who had a twin pregnancy?
G3 P3 A2T2
Which of the following is a computerized system that stores sonographic images?
Picture Archiving and Communication System (PACS)
Which of the following is an indicator of an adequately filled bladder for a gynecologic examination?
Delineation of the uterine fundus
Which of the following transducer frequencies would image a slender second trimester patient?
Choose the quantitative pregnancy test.
Identify the blastocyst layer that eventually develops into the embryonic portion of the placenta.
Identify the imaged brain structure.
Identify the structure indicated by the red box.
Name the solid ball of developing cells which occurs after fertilization.
Name the structure that produces the embryo's first blood cells.
Select the correct method to measure the nuchal translucency.
Select the gestational age when the yolk sac images between the chorion and amnion.
Carnegie stage 20
Select the hormone secreted by both the syncytiotrophoblast and placenta.
Human chorionic gonadotrophin (hCG)
Select the normal chromosome number for an ovum.
22 X or 22 Y
Select the structure indicated by the arrow.
What hormone does the mature ovarian follicle secrete?
What process allows for spermatic penetration of the ovum?
What structure images after the yolk sac?
Where does implantation of the embryo occur?
Which of the following contributes to the maternal portions of the placenta?
How many chromosomes are found in a gamete?
Identify the X-linked recessive disorder.
Name the lab values included in a quadruple screen.
Maternal levels of AFP, uE3, hCG, and inhibin A
Select the chromosome makeup of a Turner syndrome fetus.
Select the clinical feature associated with Apert syndrome.
Select the soft sonographic marker for trisomy 21.
Choroid plexus cysts
Select the term describing mutation caused by multiple genes.
The finding of a thick-walled, keyhole-shaped bladder raises suspicion for which of the Potters sequence forms?
What type of cell division results in an individual with two genotypes?
Which of the following does the yolk sac and liver secrete?
Which of the following shows an increase with trisomy 18?
Select the most common fetal ratio parameter.
Head circumference/abdominal circumference ratio (HC/AC)
Name the structure labeled 1.
Which of the following is the fetal portal vein?
Using the Hadlock table, what is the gestational age for a fetus with a head circumference of 342.7 mm?
What type of resolution is half of the spatial pulse length?
Identify the structure superior to this axial view of the fetal head.
Using the Jeanty table, what is the BPD measurement range for a 15-week fetus?
2.2 to 2.5 cm
What organ lies superior and anterior to the structure labeled A?
Apex of the heart
Which fetal leg bone is lateral and larger?
What anatomic landmarks help determine the correct level to measure the HC?
Thalamus, falx, cavum septum pellucidum
What measurement do the X's indicate?
Outer ocular distance
What is the structure labeled 2?
Cavum septum pellucidum
Which cranial bones are the landmarks for measurement of the BPD?
Identify the structure labeled 2.
Select the measurement from the frontal to the occipital bone obtained at the level of the thalami.
Occipito-frontal diameter (OFD)
Select the measurement indicated by the 2.
Which of the following is the most commonly used measurement to estimate fetal age?
Identify the measured structure.
What portion of the humerus does the sonographer measure to obtain the length?
Choose the maternal cause for nonimmune fetal hydrops.
Choose the term describing this image finding.
Identify the acquired cause for pulmonary hypoplasia.
Rupture of membranes
Identify the chromosomal malformation associated with duodenal atresia.
Identify the demonstrated malformation.
Identify the sonographic appearance of a Type III CCAM.
Solid echogenic mass within the lung
Select the term describing a congenital anomaly where the urinary bladder extends through a ventral wall defect.
The fetal sonographic exam failed to identify a right kidney, a full bladder, and there were low levels of amniotic fluid. These findings raise suspicion for which of the following?
The finding of subcutaneous edema, ascites, a large spleen and liver, and a thick placenta raises suspicion for which process?
What is the result of a lower sternum and anterior abdominal wall defect?
What malformation results in failure to identify pulmonary vascular communication with color Doppler?
What syndrome describes the fetus with herniated viscera within a complex membrane-involved mass, severe scoliosis, cranial, and spinal defects?
Limb-body wall complex
Which birth defect results in abdominal consents within the thorax?
Which of the following are findings of a congenital diaphragmatic hernia?
Pleural effusion, polyhydramnios, small abdominal circumference
Choose the skeletal dysplasia that demonstrates this image finding.
Select the sonographic findings seen with thanatophoric dysplasia.
Narrow thorax, curved or bowed long bones, hypomineralization
Select the term describing the abnormal number of digits.
This image rules out which malformation?
What dominant category does thanatophoric dysplasia fall into?
What gestational age has the least accurate long bone measurement?
What is the bone labeled C?
What scanning angle avoids artificial limb shortening when performing biometry?
Which bone is the humerus?
Identify the Dandy-Walker variant.
Partial agenesis of the vermis
Choose the structure indicated by the arrow.
Which of the following is a sonographic feature of anencephaly?
Incomplete fusion of the thalami, microcephaly, partial separation of the hemispheres and ventricles
Identify the term describing disease characteristics.
Identify the cystic hygroma characteristic.
Cystic mass with septa
Identify the interocular structure indicated by the arrow.
Choose the sonographic characteristic of a cephalocele.
Complex paracranial mass
At which Carnegie stage does the brain folding begin?
A large herniation of the posterior fossa contents into the foramen magnums with hydrocephalus and a myelomeningocele describes which type of Arnold-Chiari malformation
When does the neural tube begin fusion to form the neural tube?
Identify the structure indicated by the arrow.
Identify the defect that has a cleft spinal cord.
Short broad head due to premature fusion
Select the circumference measurement that correlates to a 28 week fetus.
Which of the following describes the protrusion of meninges through a spinal defect?
During a sonographic examination, a wide high third ventricle, teardrop-shaped ventricle, a widened ventricular atria, absent cavum septi pellucid, and a sunburst appearance of the gyri and sulci imaged in the fetal brain. What malformation do these findings support?
Agenesis of the corpus callosum
Choose the malformation seen on the image.
Agenesis of the corpus callosum
Identify the anatomy imaged on the axial plane at the cerebellar level.
Choose the structure indicated by the arrow.
Select the thoracic spine.
Select the rostral end of the neural tube.
Identify the anatomy indicated by the star.
Identify the structure labeled B.
Posterior ossification center
This is a classic finding for which malformation?
The reproductive system develops concurrent with the
Identify the characteristics the Carnegie stages of development use to stage an embryo.
In a patient with unilateral hematocolops, what organ system would be imaged?
The preembryonic phase occurs during which portion of the gestation?
The germ cells migrate from the yolk sac to the embryo during Carnegie stage 17, which corresponds to the ____ week of gestation.
The embryonic kidneys develop from the
The mullerian ducts are also known as the _______________ ducts.
The broad ligament is a transverse fold of the
The lower vagina is formed by the
Select the precursor to the penis and clitoris.
Which term describes posterior tilting of the uterus?
Select the term describing painful menstruation.
Which of the following secretes progesterone?
Choose the hormone responsible for female sexual characteristics.
Which structure extends from the ovarian upper pole?
Suspensory (infundibulopelvic) ligament
Define positive feedback loop.
Steps taken to increase concentration when the level is too low.
Which of the following is the inner uterine lining?
Select the term describing the distal end of the fallopian tube.
Choose the system that allows for communication between the hypothalamus and pituitary gland.
Hypophyseal portal system
Which of the following is secreted from the anterior lobe of the pituitary gland?
Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH)
Select the ovarian phase this image represents.
Identify the ovarian phase which demonstrates a 9 to 16 mm endometria with posterior enhancement.
Which endocrine gland provides negative feedback to reduce GnRH, LH, and FSH production?
Select the hormone that GnRH stimulates the pituitary gland to secrete.
Which of the following hormones resumes with a decrease in estrogen and a positive feedback loop?
Select the endocrine response to rising estrogen levels.
LH surge trigger
Which of the following is only present in the pregnant women?
Select the function of luteinizing hormone.
Ovulation of the dominant follicle
Which phase of the ovarian cycle correlates to ovulation and mittelschmerz?
What produces progesterone and estrogen early in pregnancy?
Which term defines physiologic process of growing new vessels?
This Doppler measurement takes the highest systolic peak minus the highest diastolic peak divided by the highest systolic peak.
Pourcelot resistive index
What days does the early proliferative phase occur?
5 to 9
Which vessel carries blood toward the uterus?
Where should the sonographer obtain the uterine artery Doppler?
Laterally at the cervical level
Identify the normal uterine arterial proliferative phase spectral Doppler flow velocity.
0.88 ± 0.05
Select the abnormal uterine artery spectral Doppler finding.
Lack of flow
Which of the following is a quantitative method of Doppler analysis?
Select the definition of a low-resistance arterial flow.
High systole, high diastole
Select the optimal angle of incidence to obtain a spectral tracing.
What phase of vascular flow does the red arrow indicate?
What phase of vascular flow does the blue arrow indicate?
Select the flow direction for this image.
What is the maximum flow velocity displayed on this image?
± 15.4 cm/s
Where does the uterine artery anastomoses with the ovarian artery?
At the uterine cornua
Select the normal flow velocity in the nongravid uterine artery.
5 to 10 cm/sec
Which of the following describes spectral Doppler flow found surrounding the corpus luteal cyst?
What is a vascular plexus of arteries and veins without an intervening capillary?
Arteriovenous malformation (AVM)
Select the term describing the increase in adrenal gland activity seen at the onset of puberty.
Where does a rhabdomyosarcoma develop?
In striated or skeletal muscle
What results in an individual with an X and O chromosome?
Identify the method that reduces image motion.
Decrease sector size
What is the approximate size of an ovary in a menstruating 14-year-old?
9.8 cm3 (± 5.8)
Select the sonographic findings for an ovarian malignancy.
Cystic with multiple septations
Select the formula used to calculate ovarian volume.
L x W x H x 0.523
Select the increased laboratory finding that corresponds to pelvis inflammatory disease (PID).
White blood cell (WBC)
Which of the following describes hydrometra in the pediatric patient?
Anechoic fluid collection within the uterus
Which pathology demonstrates prominent arterial flow?
Select the term describing painful menstruation.
Which of the following is implantation of endometrial tissue outside of the uterus?
Select the complication of endometriosis.
Which of the following areas become infected with Stage 2 pelvic inflammatory disease?
Which of the following is a clinical presentation of pelvic inflammatory disease?
Cervical motion tenderness
Select the etiology for pelvic inflammatory disease.
Choose the term that describes the presence of ectopic endometrial tissue.
How does the fallopian tube image in a patient with Stage 2 pelvic inflammatory disease?
Hypoechoic with a cogwheel appearance
How do the fallopian tube and ovary image with acute tubo-ovarian complex?
Ill defined with a large adhered ovary
Which of the following are sonographic signs of endometriosis?
Discrete adnexal mass with peripheral Doppler flow
During the sonographic examination, an anechoic tubular structure images to the left of the uterus. What is the most likely differential for this finding?
A 26-year-old patient presents to the department with complaints of urinary pain without bladder infection and painful periods. She has chronic pain that varies in intensity during her cycle. The transverse endovaginal image demonstrates bilateral complex masses. Select the most likely differential for these findings.
A 40-year-old woman presents with complaints of an enlarged, tender uterus with abnormal bleeding. She has a pregnancy history of G4P3A1. After viewing the image, what is the most likely differential for the patient symptoms and sonographic findings?
What is the products of conception called that is 5 days after fertilization?
Which phase does the corpus luteum secrete high levels of progesterone?
Choose the phase that overlaps the menstrual phase.
Choose the primary sex hormone produced by ovarian follicles.
Which term describes placement of the sperm and ova into the fallopian tube?
Gamete intrafallopian (GIFT)
How long after fertilization does an embryo transfer occur?
5 to 6 days
Which term describes the estimation of the quality and quantity of a woman's remaining follicles?
Which type of fertilization occurs inside the body?
In vivo fertilization
Select the most common infertility cause.
Which of the following is a uterine anatomic cause of infertility?
How large is the mean diameter of a follicular cyst at ovulation in a normal cycle?
15 to 25 millimeters
Identify the type of ovarian cyst demonstrated on the image.
Which pathology presents as the complex mass seen on this image?
Identify the endometrial stage demonstrated on this image.
Identify the echogenic structure located within the endometrium.
Which of the following is the spontaneous failure and expulsion of an early pregnancy?
Which term describes an abnormally fast heart rate?
Select the term describing an oocyte without maternal chromosomes resulting in proliferation of swollen chorionic villi and the absence of identifiable embryonic structures.
Complete hydatidiform mole
Which of the following describes the sonographic findings of an embryonic demise?
Lack of heart motion, expanded amnion sign, missing double bleb sign
A patient presents as small for gestational age with a known LMP 10 weeks ago. The sonographic exam reveals a gestational sac equivalent to a 6-week gestation. Select the most likely differential.
Select the sonographic findings that increase suspicion of a choriocarcinoma.
Mass invasion through the uterine myometrium to the serosa with hypoechoic liver lesions
An 18-year-old presents to the emergency department with complaints of profuse bleeding with a positive home pregnancy test. The clinical exam reveals a dilated cervix. View the image and choose the differential that fits the patient symptoms and sonographic findings.
Identify the structure indicated by the arrow.
Which of the following cardiac malformations identifiable in the first trimester?
Hypoplastic left heart syndrome
Select the risk factor for an ectopic implantation of a pregnancy.
Assisted reproductive therapy
In a normal pregnancy, how long does it take the β-hCG to double?
Select the mIU/mL discriminatory cutoff for β-hCG.
Above 1,500 to 2,500
Which portion of the fallopian tube has the highest incidence of ectopic gestation?
Which of the following types of ectopic pregnancy implants in a uterine horn?
Define a heterotopic pregnancy.
An intrauterine pregnancy (IUP) coexisting with an ectopic pregnancy
Identify the sonographic finding in the uterus that is made up of bleeding from the decidualized endometrium.
Identify the type of ectopic pregnancy that is surrounded by less than 5 mm of myometrium.
Which type of ectopic pregnancy implants on previous cesarean scars?
A 30-year-old, G4P2A1 presents to the department with right lower quadrant pain. Her β-hCG is 1,500, and she is 7 weeks by LMP. The sonographer images the double decidual sign, an embryo, and an endometrial thickness of 9 mm. The right ovary demonstrates increased color Doppler flow in a ringlike pattern. What is the most likely differential for this patient's history and sonographic findings?
Define a circumvallate placenta.
An abnormally attached placenta with a peripheral raised ring.
What is the area between the myometrium and placenta?
Which of the following is the implantation of the placenta low in the uterus resulting in total or partial covering of the cervix?
What is the delivery of the cord before the fetus?
Select the procedure that increases abdominal pressure.
Which of the following maternal diseases can result in early placental maturation?
Select the acquired maternal problem that results in a placental thickness of less than 2 cm.
Choose the maternal factor that results in delayed placental maturation of a 5-cm placenta.
Which of the following placental greases demonstrates basal and interlobular septal calcifications?
What can result in the mimicking of a placenta previa?
Which of the following results in a hypoechoic or complex mass in the subchorionic space?
Select the definition for placenta accreta.
Decidual formation defect with abnormal placental attachment to uterine wall
During the sonographic examination, hypoechoic areas in the intervillous spaces beneath the chorion that lack flow image. What is the most likely cause for this finding?
Which of the following describes the sonographic characteristic of excessive Wharton's jelly?
Variably echogenic, soft tissue mass with three vessels visible
How would an umbilical cord stricture image?
Localized narrowing of the cord with disappearance of Wharton's jelly
Which of the following is a cause for abruptio placenta?
Select the placental location.
Select the placental grade.
Select the most likely cord pathology demonstrated on the image.
Which of the following maternal processes can result in a thickened placenta?
Choose the chromosomal cause for a thick placenta.
Which form of placenta previa lies within 2 cm of the internal cervical os?
Identify the placental type where the chorionic villi attach but do not invade the myometrium.
Select the differential for an intraplacental lesion.
Which maternal or fetal condition results in a placental appearance seen in the image?
Choose the term describing the placental location on this image.
Identify the placental type seen on the image.
Select the most likely cause for the imaged finding.
A 26-year-old, G2P1 patient presents to the department with complaints of pain and bleeding. She is considered high risk due to her uncontrolled hypertension and by previous sonographic examination she is 20 weeks. What is the most likely cause for the sonographic finding?
Identify the structure labeled D.
Select the type of cord insert demonstrated in the image.
Which of the following is the crossing of the internal cervical os by the umbilical cord?
Which structure originates from the umbilical cord?
What is the structure within the measuring calipers?
Which imaging mode creates a static image from a data set?
Select the term defining dilatation of the renal calices.
Identify the term describing the head or cranium.
Choose the term describing tissue that is darker than the surrounding structures.
What disease process can result in nonimmune fetal hydrops and ventriculomegaly?
Which term describes the portion of the fetus that will deliver first?
Where on the image is the fetal spine in the vertex fetus facing anterior?
Bottom of the image
How does the DICOM format describe the front of the fetus?
What is the 95% confidence interval for a 20-week fetus?
1.8 to 3.4 cm
Select the maximum right renal volume for a 30-week fetus.
Identify the anatomy indicated by the arrows.
Select the explanation for the hypoechoic area indicated by the arrow.
What is the structure indicated by the star?
Identify the structures indicated by the arrows.
Identify the spine.
What is the structure indicated by the arrow? Identify the fetal lungs.
What is the anechoic structure indicated by the arrow?
Identify the shadowing artifact.
Select the fetal anatomy closest to the cervix in the Frank breech fetus.
What are the normal hypoechoic structures seen within the fetal kidneys?
Which of the following is a general term describing an abnormal heart rate?
Which of the following is part of Epstein's anomaly?
Name the congenital malformation in which the aorta arises from the right ventricle.
Transposition of the great arteries
Define an abnormal opening between the right and left atrium.
Atrial septal defect
Which Carnegie stage has the aorta and pulmonary channel separating?
Stage 16 to 18
Which anatomy images on the four-chamber view?
Select the abnormal finding in a view of the upper abdomen
Aorta and inferior vena cava on same side
Which of the following is the maximum Doppler velocity of the main pulmonary artery?
60 ± 4
What Doppler flow changes occur with severe coarctation of the aorta?
Reversed ductus arteriosus flow
Which form of DORV occurs with pulmonary stenosis?
A fetal heart with a large RA, small RV, apically displaced TV, hydrops, arrhythmia, and abnormal right ventricular contraction raises suspicion for which heart defect?
Identify the heart defect that has an increase in right ventricular size, a small aorta, and reversed ductus arteriosus flow.
Interrupted aortic arch
What heart defect has a perimembranous ventricular septal defect, pulmonic stenosis, pulmonary artery hypoplasia, right ventricular hypertrophy, overriding aorta, and a right-sided aorta in 25% of cases?
Tetralogy of Fallot
Identify the heart defect with a single vessel overriding a VSD, single truncal valve, regurgitant flow, thickened stenotic valve, right-sided and/or an interrupted aortic arch.
Identify the chamber indicated by the star.
Which valve is indicated by the arrow?
What structure is within the circle?
Assuming flow away from the transducer is coded blue, what direction is the flow through the septal defect?
From the left to right ventricle
Identify the heart view on the image.
Which abdominal structure is inferior to the normal left-sided heart apex?
Choose the maternal indication for performance of a fetal Doppler exam.
Select the Doppler mode that has no Nyquist limit.
Describe the normal umbilical artery waveform.
Which fetal vessel is sampled above the umbilical sinus and has a normal triphasic flow pattern?
Identify the vessel with flow fluctuations and pulsations in the distressed fetus.
Choose the optimal angle of insonation to obtain a Doppler tracing of the fetal middle cerebral artery.
What technique parameter would reduce or eliminate the aliasing seen on this image?
What type of Doppler mode does the arrow indicate?
What is the benefit of decreasing the sector width when imaging?
The line density increases
What does the waveform labeled 1 indicate?
Identify the vessel indicated by the arrows.
Middle cerebral artery
Choose the term describing fetal blood pH less than 7.
Which fetal testing method includes the nonstress test and amniotic fluid volume?
Modified biophysical profile
Identify the parameter that allows a scoring of 2 on the biophysical profile.
Sustained fetal breathing of 30 seconds in a 30-minute period.
What is the maximum score a sonographer can give on a biophysical profile?
How can the sonographer avoid mistaking the fetal heart movement for breathing?
Image the diaphragm on the sagittal plane.
Which the following is a gross fetal movement?
Large limb movement
Identify the first sonographically observed biophysical change seen with fetal hypoxia.
Choose the primary factor for increased multiple births?
Select the clinical finding that raises suspicion for a multiple pregnancy.
Large for gestational age
What percentage of twins is monozygotic?
Identify the inner layer of the amniotic membranes
Which type of placentation is seen with dizygotic twins?
Select the maternal complication of a multiple pregnancy.
Select the type of membranes imaged.
The commalike projection of the placenta, labeled P in the image, indicates what type of placentation?
Fusion of two placentas
In a twin gestation with a placenta on the anterior wall and a second on the posterior wall, what would be the membrane configuration?
Fetal death and the retention of the fetus can result in what type of process?
Identify the Doppler parameter, which confirms the presence of an acardiac twin.
Umbilical cord flow reversal
Which of the following types of conjoined twins occur most often?
Identify the term describing a twin found within the abdomen of its sibling.
Fetus in fetu
Which of the following is a sonographic finding for the donor twin in TTTS pregnancy.
What type of placentation occurs with division of the monozygotic twinning at day 3?
Identify the amount of blood loss with a cesarean delivery that defines postpartum hemorrhage.
A 1,000-ml blood loss
Which of the following is a result of abnormal placental penetration into the myometrium?
Choose a cause for postpartum endometritis.
Which postpartum complication images similar to retained products of conception?
Which vein has the highest risk of developing thrombophlebitis in the postpartum period?
Choose the real-time display of volume information.
What is the smallest unit of a 3D volume?
Identify the software program used to measure volumes.
Where is the 3D data set stored?
Define the display of simultaneous display of three planes and a volume.
What term describes the display of parallel images?
Which type of data acquisition allows for measurements on the resulting images?
The ROI controls the displayed information on which of the following planes?
A and B
Identify the surface rendering control.
Select the use for the minimum mode.
Evaluation of fluid-filled structures
What does the dot (arrows) indicate on this MPR image?
Identify the type of 3D volume post-processing seen on this image.
Identify the plane seen on this image.
Which acquisition plane is indicated by the yellow box?
Which maternal bacterial infection raises the risk of fetal hydrops?
Immune fetal hydrops include which of the following fetal findings?
Which placental problem coexists with maternal pre-eclampsia?
Which of the following indicates the onset of eclampsia?
Identify the abdominal finding in this image.
Identify the artifact indicated by the arrow.
Which of the following is the most common maternal disorder?
An Rh-negative mother and an Rh-positive fetus can result in which of the following?
Premature RBC death
When does Rh isoimmunization occur?
Select the procedure used to obtain a fetal blood sample.
Choose the disadvantage to chorionic villus sampling.
Which procedure allow for sampling of the amniotic fluid?
Choose the gestational age for a genetic amniocentesis.
Which of the following can be done in the first 6 weeks of gestation?
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