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Partial-thickness skin loss involving the epidermis or the dermis
ulcer is superficial
looks like an abrasion, blister, or shallow crater
can heal in weeks if covered and treated
What is the normal ROM and end feel for Shoulder Extension?
a. 180, firm
b. 60, firm
c. 180, soft
d. 60, soft
What is the normal ROM and end feel for Shoulder Internal Rotation?
a. 70, firm
b. 90, firm
c. 70, hard
d. 90, hard
Shoulder Abduction is normally 180 degrees with a hard end feel. (True/False)
What is the normal ROM and end feel for elbow extension?
a. 10, firm
b. 0, firm
c. 10, hard
d. 0, hard
What is the normal ROM and end feel for elbow flexion?
a. 150, firm
b. 140, firm
c. 150, soft
d. 140, soft
What is the normal ROM and end feel for Pronation?
a. 80, hard
b. 80, firm
d. 70, firm
What is the normal ROM and end feel for wrist extension?
a. 80, firm
b. 80, hard
c. 70, firm
d. 70, hard
What is the normal ROM and end feel for Radial Deviation?
a. 20, hard
b. 30, hard
c. 20, firm
d. 30, firm
Finger MP Flexion is normally 90 degrees with a hard end feel. (True/False)
What is the normal ROM and end feel for Finger DIP Flexion?
a. 100, hard
b. 100, firm
c. 90, hard
d. 90, firm
What is usually the normal ROM and end feel for Hip Flexion?
a. 135, soft
b. 120, soft
c. 135, firm
d. 120, hard
What is the normal ROM and end feel for hip adduction?
a. 40, firm
b. 20, firm
c. 40, soft
d. 20, soft
Both internal and external rotation of the hip have a normal ROM of 40 degrees with a firm end feel. (True/False)
What is the normal ROM and end feel for knee flexion?
b. 140, soft
d. 135, firm
What is the normal ROM and end feel for ankle dorsiflexion?
a. 50, firm
b. 50, hard
d. 20, hard
What is the normal ROM and end feel for ankle eversion?
a. 35, firm
b. 35, hard
c. 15, soft
d. 15, hard
What is the normal ROM and end feel for thumb MP flexion?
c. 50, soft
d. 50, hard
Thumb Abduction is 60 degrees with a firm end feel. (True/False)
For our purposes, all spinal ROM end feels are a firm end feel. (True/False)
What is the ROM for Cervical Rotation according to AAOS?
What is the ROM for Capital Flexion?
What is the ROM for Cervical Flexion?
What is the ROM for Cervical Flexion combined w/SCM?
What is the ROM for Capital Extension?
What is the ROM for Thoracic Extension?
What is the ROM for Trunk Flexion?
What is the ROM for Trunk Rotation?
What is the ROM for Lumbar Extension?
You are performing a deep tendon reflex test of the brachioradialis muscle. Which neurological level are you testing?
You are performing a deep tendon reflex test of the triceps. Which neurological level are you testing?
You are performing a deep tendon reflex test of the biceps. Which neurological level are you testing?
According to ASIA, what action are you testing at the C8 Myotome?
a. Wrist Extension
b. Elbow Flexion
c. Middle Finger DIP flexion
d. Little finger abduction
According to ASIA, what action are you testing at the C5 Myotome?
c. Wrist Flexion
d. Elbow Extension
According to ASIA, what action are you testing at the C6 Myotome?
b. Wrist Flexion
c. Elbow Extension
d. Little Finger Abduction
According to ASIA, what action are you testing at the T1 Myotome?
a. Middle Finger DIP Flexion
b. Shoulder Abduction
c. Finger Adduction
According to Hoppenfeld, which muscles are being tested at the C5 Myotome?
a. Biceps, ECRL & ECRB
b. Biceps & Deltoid
c. Biceps & FCR
d. Biceps only
According to Hoppenfeld, which muscles are being tested at the C6 Myotome?
a. Biceps & Deltoid
b. Biceps, ECRL & ECRB
According to Hoppenfeld, which muscles are being tested at the C7 Myotome?
a. Triceps, Wrist Flexors, Finger Extensor
b. Triceps, Wrist Extensors, Finger Flexors
c. Triceps, Wrist Flexors, Finger Flexors
d. Triceps, Wrist Extensors, Finger Extensors
According to Hoppenfeld, which muscles are being tested at the C8 Myotome?
a. Finger Adductors only
b. Finger Adductors & Flexors
c. Finger Abductors & Adductors
d. Finger Abductors, Adductors & Flexors
According to Hoppenfeld, which muscles are being tested at the T1 Myotome?
Wrist radial deviation
Wrist ulnar deviation
Finger PIP Flexion
Finger PIP Extension
Finger DIP Flexion
Finger DIP Extension
Thumb MP Extension
Thumb IP Extension
Thumb MP Flexion
Thumb IP Flexion
Thumb CMC Flexion
Hip Medial/Internal Rotation
Hip Lateral/External Rotation
Foot MTP & IP Extension
Toe DIP & PIP Flexion
You are testing the deep tendon reflexes of the quadriceps. What neurological level(s) are you testing?
You are testing the deep tendon reflexes of the Achilles. What neurological level(s) are you testing?
According to ASIA, what action are you testing at the L2 Myotome?
a. Hip Extension
b. Hip Flexion
c. Knee Extension
d. Knee Flexion
According to ASIA, what action are you testing at the L3 Myotome?
a. Knee Extension
b. Knee Flexion
c. Hip Extension
d. Great Toe Extension
According to Asia, what action are you testing at the L4 Myotome?
a. Knee Flexion
b. Ankle Dorsiflexion
d. Ankle Plantarflexion
According to ASIA, what action are you testing at the L5 Myotome?
a. Great Toe Flexion
b. Great Toe Abduction
c. Great Toe Adduction
1. According to ASIA, what action are you testing at the S1 Myotome?
b. Great Toe Extension
c. Ankle Plantarflexion
d. Ankle Dorsiflexion
According to Hoppenfeld, what muscle(s) are being tested at the L4 Myotome?
a. Extensor Hallucis Longus
b. Tibialis Anterior
c. Peroneus Longus & Brevis
d. Extensor Digitorum
According to Hoppenfeld, what muscle(s) are being tested at the L5 Myotome?
a. Extensor Hallucis Longus
d. Extensor Digitorum
According to Hoppenfeld, what muscle(s) are being tested at the S1 Myotome?
a. Gastroc & Soleus
b. Peroneus Longus & Brevis
c. Flexor Hallucis Longus
d. Orbicularis Oculi
A patient cannot feel any sensation at the lateral shoulder, arm, forearm and thumb. What Maitland dermatome is likely affected?
A patient loses a line of sensation that runs from the lateral hip to the medial knee. What Maitland dermatome is likely affected?
A patient loses sensation of the lateral great toe. What Maitland dermatome is likely affected?
Which two dermatomes must have sensation to violate ‘NOON’ sign?
a. S1 & S2
b. S2 & S3
c. S3 & S4
d. S4 & S5
A patient can’t feel the medial posterior aspect of their arm as well as their pinky finger. What Maitland Dermatome is likely affected?
You are driving with the window down and you get cut off by a crazy driver. In your road rage, you stick your hand out the window and flip the crazy driver the ‘bird’ and you realize you can’t feel the wind on your middle finger. What Maitland dermatome could be affected?
Which of the following is not a property of a normal distribution?
B. Mean, median, and mode are all equal
E. All are true
What does asymptotic mean?
A. The curve of a SD never touches the x-axis
B. The SD is positively skewed
C. The SD is negatively skewed
D. The curve is bell-shaped
Mode < Median < Mean?
In Evidence-based practice, the ability to use an article to guide practice partially rests on how closely your client resembles the sample in the study.
Which is the most common descriptor of central tendency?
In addition to the central point, the dispersion of the data, or its overall ______, helps to clearly define the data.
A. Standard Deviation
D. None of the above
If the research study states the median, what would you expect to find reported next?
D. Standard Deviation
The most common type of inferential statistic is called ______?
C. Minimal Detectable Difference
In a research article, what does the term significant mean?
A. Very Important
B. Clinically useful
C. The inferential test specification has been met
D. The results are probably generalizable to the population and are not sample specific
E. C and D are both true
Which measurement property describes how interpretable the instrument is?
C. Clinical Applicability
D. Detect clinically relevant change
Which measurement property represents how precise the instrument is?
Which measurement property describes how well the instrument represents the construct of interest?
Which measurement property describes how responsive an instrument is?
If the instrument is observer collected, the types of reliability will be____?
A. Inter-rater and Intra-rater
B. Test-retest and Intra-rater
C. Test-retest and Inter-rater
D. Test-retest only
What is test-retest reliability?
A. The repeatability between one rater rating the same thing several times
B. The repeatability between several raters all rating the same thing
C. the repeatability of the test administered several times to the same person
Intraclass correlation coefficients can be used with all types of data EXCEPT____.
What type(s) of reliability statistics can be used on nominal data?
A. Percent Agreement
D. Both A and B
Type II error refers to what?
A. The likelihood of a patient with a disease has a positive test
B.The likelihood of a patient without a disease has a negative test
An ideal test should have___.
A. 100% sensitivity
B. 100% specificity
C. 100% sensitivity and 100% specificity
What is the cut-off weight for a standard wheelchair?
What type of Wheelchair would a person who is over 250lbs need?
A. Custom, high-end wheelchair
B. Heavy duty wheelchair
D. Power Wheelchair
Which of the following is the most sensible wheelchair for patients who have orthostatic hypotension, autonomic dysreflexia, and/or musculoskeletal impairments?
A. Standard wheelchair
B. Reclining wheelchair
C. Hemi wheelchair
D. Power wheelchair
Patients that have upper extremity ROM, strength, or endurance impairments would require what type of chair?
A. Custom, high end
B. Power wheelchair
D. Stair climbing
Power wheelchair controllers include all of the following EXCEPT?
A. Chin control
B. Eye control
C. Joy stick
D. Tongue touch
E. Head control
What are the common hanger angles for leg rests?
A. 60, 70, and 80 degrees
B. 70, 80, and 90 degrees
C. 80, 90, and 100 degrees.
What are the disadvantages of having too narrow of a wheel chair seat width?
A. Skin irritation
B. Inhibits transfer ease
C. Allows for poor posture
D. Makes chair more difficult to propel
E. Both A and B
Which term means "ability to hold center of mass in relation to base of support."
A. Postural control
C. Postural orientation
D. Limits of stability
Which term refers to the internal representation of how far the body can move over its base of support before changing the support or losing balance?
A. Reactive postural responses
B. Postural control
C. Sensory interaction/orientation
Neuropathy, denervation, and spasticity are examples of how which of the 4 systems would impact balance?
Which of the following is NOT one of the three motor strategies we use to keep ourselves upright?
A. Stepping strategy.
B. Ankle strategy
C. Head strategy
D. Hip strategy
Which motor strategy is used when there are quick and large displacements and the foot is not well supported?
A. Stepping strategy.
Kate is standing on the edge of a curb with her heels hanging off the curb. Her displacements are large and quick. Which of the following motor strategies would be the most appropriate for Kate to use?
a. Ankle strategy
b. Hip strategy
c. Stepping strategy
d. Arm strategy
In the CTSIB, how many 30 second trials are performed for each condition?
Put the motor strategies in order of what would be used from minimal to maximal displacement.
A. Stepping, Hip, Ankle
B. Ankle, Hip, Stepping
C. Ankle, Stepping, Hip
D. Hip, Ankle, Stepping
A patient can complete conditions 1,2, and 4 but not 5. What sensory system(s) is/are the patient relying on?
A. Vision only
B. Vision and Somatosensory
C. Vesitbular and Vision
D. Somatosensory and Vestibular
What is the total possible score for each leg in the single leg stance test?
A. 120 seconds
B. 180 seconds
C. 150 seconds
D. 30 seconds
What does the functional reach test for?
A. Integrity of visual system
B. Integrity of somatosensory system
C. Limits of stability
D. Quick screen for balance
On a firm surface, 70% of somatosensory, 20% vision and 10% vestibular is being used. (True/False)
On a foam surface, 10% of somatosensory, 60% vestibular and 30% of vision is being used. (True/False)
A patient is standing on a firm surface with eyes closed. The patient can only hold this position for a few seconds before losing their balance. What sensory system is the patient relying on? What system(s) would need to be examined to determine integrity?
A patient is standing on a foam surface with eyes closed. The patient cannot stand on this surface without losing their balance. What sensory system is the patient relying on? What system(s) would need to be examined to determine integrity?
Which of the following balance tests is testing the patient’s level of activity?
b. Single Leg Stance
Which of the following balance tests is testing body structure and function?
c. Functional Reach
Which of the following balance tests is testing participation?
a. Activities-Specfic Balance Confidence Scale
c. Single Leg Stance
Which of the following tests is a 16 item questionnaire that measures balance self-efficacy with scores ranging from 1-100?
d. Activities-Specific Balance Confidence Scale
Which of the following tests is a 16 item tool consisting of 2 subscales to screen for balance and mobility skills in older adults and determine likelihood of falls?
Which of the following is a 14-item test intended to asses a person’s ability to perform common ADLs safely with maximum score of 56?
1. Which of the following is NOT a consideration while performing a sensory screen?
a. Patient should be sitting or supine
b. Patient should have their eyes closed
c. The test should be explained prior to testing
d. All of the above
1. Which lower extremity myotome (according to Hoppenfeld) is responsible for ankle dorsiflexion?
1. In addition to knowing the mid-point of the data, what else is important to know in order to get a more complete picture of the data?
1. The Trendelenburg Gait is caused by weakness in what muscle?
a. Gluteus Maximus
b. Gluteus Medius
1. Which motor strategy for balance is appropriate to use when there are quick and large displacements and the feet are not well supported?
1. Which part of the SOAP note would your interpretation of the balance test score be written?
1. All of the following are principles to keep in mind for proper body mechanics when doing transfers EXCEPT:
a. Exhale during exertion
b. Twisting at the trunk
c. Asking for help if needed
d. Maintaining normal spinal curvature
1. Which bony landmarks are used to determine fit for forearm crutches?
a. Greater trochanter, ulnar styloid process, wrist crease
b. Greater trochanter, radial styloid process, wrist crease
c. ASIS, ulnar styloid process, wrist crease
d. ASIS, radial styloid process, wrist crease
A lesion to the antero-lateral system will show sensory loss to all areas except?
B. Crude Touch
D. Tickle and Itch
Which sensory modality can test motion sense and position sense?
A. Point Localization
B. Deep bone vibration
C. Sharp vs. dull discrimination
Which assistive devices allow more mobility, but less stability?
A. Rolling walker
B. Platform walker
C. Axillary crutches
Which of the assistive device gait pattern requires high energy expenditure?
A. Three or four-point non-weight bearing
D. Three-one point
When is it appropriate to use a hip strategy?
A. Foot well supported
B. Quick and large displacements
C. Firm surface
D. When other strategies are not enough to maintain equilibrium
Which subjective grading level of balance is a patient able to hold their balance for under 5 seconds with or without UE support?
Sit to stand consists of four phases except:
C. Knee Flexion
D. Momentum Transfer
What transfer can you do with more dependent type patients?
A. Stand pivot
B. Slide board
C. Squat pivot
D. Two person transfer
The common landmark dermatome of the nipple line is located at spinal cord level _____.
When documenting DTR, 2+ is considered ______.
A. Diminished (hypo-reflexia)
D. Exaggerated (hyper-reflexia)
Which of the following is NOT a disadvantage of axillary crutches?
A. Decreased stability
B. Requires UE strength and endurance
C. Possible damage to brachial plexus
D. Greater speed
With what value can we describe the central tendency?
D. All of the above
In the CTSIB test, what is the primary system that one relies on for balance in condition 6?
What is NOT an appropriate balance test to use when measuring balance activity level?
D. Functional Reach
Which of the following patients would NOT need a Trendelenberg positioning?
A. Abdominal surgery
C. Total Knee Replacement
D. Gynecologic surgery
Which of the following is the body position that can best be treated in prone?
B. Lateral thigh
C. SI joint
D. Anterior shoulder
According to the mailtand dermatome chart, the dermatome best representing the medial knee would be..
Which is the suggested procedure for testing proprioception?
A. Start with small movements, slower then faster, work proximal to distal
B. Start with small movements, slower then faster, work distal to proximal
C. Start with large movements, faster then slower, work proximal to distal
D. Start with large movements, slower then faster, work proximal to distal.
If I was wondering how well an instrument represented the construct of interest, I would be concerned with the intruments _____.
D. Minimum Detectable Difference (MDD)
The most appropriate device for a patient who only required one upper extremity for support but continuously used it for weight bearing would be...
A. Standard Walker
C. Standard cane
D. Offset cane
Which of the following choices represents the correct distribution of senses for balance on a firm surface?
A. 70% Somatosensory, 20% Vestibular, 10% Vision
B. 70% Vestibular, 20% Somatosensory, 10% Vision
C. 60% Somatosensory, 30% Vision, 10% Vestibular
D. 60% Vestibular, 30% Vision, 10% Somatosensory
The correct cut off for adults with a history of falls on the Berg balance scale is..
Which of the following is NOT one of the four phases during normal movement from sit to stand?
A. Leg swing.
B. Flexion momentum
Which of the following would be used for a partial weight bearing patient?
A. Squat pivot
B. 2 person lift
C. Hoyer Lift
D. Arjo-maxi move
What nerve is responsible for pronation, wrist flexion, and long finger flexors?
A. Radial nerve
B. Median nerve
C. Ulnar nerve
D. Axillary nerve
Which of the following is considered a deep sensation?
B. Point localization
C. Crude Touch
Which of the following is NOT a type of reliability statistic?
A. Percent agreement
In order to result in a true positive, what two situations must occur?
A. disease is absent and test positive for the disease
B. disease is absent and test negative for the disease
C. disease is present and test positive for the disease
D. disease is present and test negative for the disease
The internal representation of how far the body can move over its base of support before changing the support or losing balance is referred to as:
A. Limits of stability
B. Postural orientation.
D. Postural control
With what portion of the ICF model does the Activities Based Confidence Scale coincide?
A. Environmental factors
B. Health Conditions
D. Body functions and structure
Bilateral ambulation aids, alternating reciprocal pattern, low energy, and maximum stability/support are all characteristic of which gait pattern?
B. Three-one-point partial weight bearing
C. Three-point non-weight bearing
D. Four point pattern
Which of the following is a characteristic of the two-point gait pattern?
A. Unilateral aid
B. High energy
C. Simultaneous, reciprocal pattern
D. Slower speed
If a patient presents with glove-like or sock-like sensory loss, it is most likely due to which of the following?
A. Damage to the DCML
B. Damage to the Spinothalamic tract
C. Cortical lesion
D. Peripheral nerve damage
If a patient reports sensory loss in their thumb and the posterior lateral aspect of their arm, it is most likely due to a nerve root compression at what level?
If a patient is leaning their trunk back as they walk and keeping their arms behind them, it is likely due to:
A. Gluteus Medius weakness
B. Tibialis Anterior weakness
C. Gastroc/ soleous weakness
D. Gluteus Maximus weakness
If data are positively skewed, then which of the following is correct?
A. The mean is greater than the mode
B. The mode is greater than the median and mean
C. The mode is greater than just the median
D. The median is greater than the mean
Active responses to an external perturbation is the definition of which of the following terms?
C. Anticipatory postural responses
D. Reactionary postural responses
______________ is an active response to an external perturbation.
b. Postural orientation
c. Anticipatory postural responses
d. Reactionary postural responses
Given the following results of the CTSIB balance examination, which sensory system(s) would need to be examined further to determine their integrity? Condition 1: 30 seconds, Condition 2: 30 seconds, Condition 4: 30 seconds, Condition 5: 0 seconds.
B. Somatosensory and vision
When rolling a patient onto their right side and sitting up, which of the following should not be done?
A. Flex the patient's knee before turning them
B. Stand behind the patient and push them at the scapula and pelvis
C. Bring the patient's left arm across their chest before turning them
D. Instruct the patient to help as much as they can to sit up by pushing with their L hand and R elbow
When facilitating sit to stand, which of the following is NOT a key question for patient alignment?
A. patient scoots forward on surface
B. Feet are placed behind knees
C. Elbows are locked
D. Weight shifted foward
A glove-like or sock-like pattern of sensory loss is representative of what type of lesion or injury?
A. Spinal cord lesion
B. Nerve root compression
What grade would hyper-reflexia DTR be given?
A trendelenberg gait results from muscle weakness in which muscle?
A. Gluteus Maximus
C. Gluteus Medius
D. Lateral Trunk Flexors
All of the following could cause an abnormal gait pattern except?
C. Limited range of motion
D. Increased flexibility
Which of the following is not a balance motor strategy?
Which of the following is the first condition in the CTSIB test?
A. firm surface, dome
B. Dome, eyes closed
C. firm surface, eyes open
D. foam surface, eyes closed
When using an assistive device, all of the following are possible gait patterns EXCEPT?
A. Step to gait
B. 3 point gait
C. 1-2 gait
D. Step through gait
If a patient has weak gastrocnemius, soleous, and tibialis posterior, they may present with which type of gait deviation?
A. Flat foot gait
B. Steppage gait
D. Trendelenburg Gait
Which of the following is beneficial for assisting a patient with hip precautions from sit to stand?
A. Have the patient cross their ankles and put more weight on the uninvolved side
B. Raise the level of the bed to reduce hip flexion
C. Have patient lean very far forward to help get their weight over their feet
D. Have patient stand with feet farther than shoulder width apart
Which of the following is NOT a sensation carried by the Antero-lateral system?
A. Crude touch
If an individual has normal sensation in dermatomes C1-C6, impaired sensation in dermatomes C7-C8, and no sensation beyond T1, what level is the SCI at?
____ is used to assess the degree to which different raters give consistent estimates of the same phenomenon.
A. inter-rater validity
B. intra-rater validity
C. Inter-rater reliability
D. intra-rater reliability
Which of the following is the proper way to ambulate with a cane?
A. hold in non-involved side, involved leg steps with the cane
B. hold in non-involved side, non-involved leg steps with the cane
C. hold in involved side, involved leg steps with the cane
D. hold in involved side, non-involved leg steps with the cane
Which of the following balance tests permits the use of an assistive device?
Based on the following modified CTSIB results, determine what sensory system(s) the patient is relying on to hold their balance.
Condition 1: 30s;Condition 2: 8 s; Condition 3: 30s; Condition 4: 2 s
You have a patient that recently had a total hip arthroplasty, which of the following is NOT a hip precaution that they should follow?
A. No internal rotation
B. No abduction
C. No hip extension past 20 degrees
D. No hip flexion past 90 degrees
Which of the following is not a sensory modality to test for ALS impairments?
A. Light moving touch with a cotton ball
C. Temperature discrimination between two test tubes
D. Sharp vs. dull discrimination
What muscles or muscle actions are involved with testing the motor functions of the median nerve?
A. Little finger abduction, interossei
B. Supination, little finger abduction, long finger flexion
C. Pronation, long finger flexion, little finger abduction.
D. Supination, interossei, long finger flexors
Finger abduction, finger adduction and and finger flexion are tested for which of the following myotomes?
If a majority of a set of scores is clustered around the low end of the distribution curve with a fewer at the higher end (including the mean), the curve is?
A. Normally distributed.
B. Positively skewed
C. Negatively skewed
Which of the following is true when using a cane?
a. The cane should be used in the UE ipsilateral to the affected LE, 2 inches lateral from the toe and 4-6 inches anterior to the toe
b. The cane should be used in the UE contralateral to the affected LE, 4 inches lateral from the toe and 2-3 inches anterior to the toe.
c. The cane should be used in the UE contralateral to the affected LE, 2 inches lateral from the toe and 4-6 inches anterior to the toe.
d. The cane should be used in the UE ipsilateral to the affected LE, 4 inches lateral from the toe and 2-3 inches anterior to the toe.
What is phase 3 of a sit to stand normal movement?
c. Momentum transfer
Which of the following statements is true involving balance testing?
a. An assistive device may be used in the Berg Balance Test, but you will be marked down.
b. An assistive device may be used in the gait portion of the Tinetti Balance Assessment, but you will be marked down.
c. An assistive device may be used in the gait and balance portion of the Tinetti Balance Assessment, but you will be marked down.
d. You may not use an assistive device in the Berg Balance Test or the Tinetti Balance Assessment.
When Alyssa walks, she drops her pelvis on the opposite side during the stance phase of the affected side. Kelly has lateral (trunk) flexion over the affected limb during single limb support. What muscle(s) are weak in Alyssa and Kelly?
a. Alyssa: Illiopsoas, Kelly: Gluteus Maximus
b. Alyssa: Gluteus Medius, Kelly: Gluteus Medius
c. Alyssa: Gluteus Maximus, Kelly: Gluteus Medius
d. Alyssa: Illiopsoas, Kelly: Gluteus Minimus
Using a goniometer, Maria measured Toms hip flexion range of motion 3 consecutive times. The first time she measured 115 degrees, the second time 105 degrees, and the third time 120 degree. Which of the following statements is true regarding reliability?
a. There is poor intra-rater reliability
b. There is poor inter-rater reliability
c. There is poor test-retest reliability
d. This tells us nothing about reliability
The DCML is important for which of the following?
This device provides the most stability for a patient.
a. Parallel bars
c. Hemi walker
d. Bilateral axillary crutches
Which is NOT an indication to use a tilt table.
b. Lower extremity amputation
c. Cervical pain
This part of the ICF model is where the Berg and Tinetti tests would fall under.
c. Body/Structure function
d. All of the above
The stance phase of the gait cycle is about ___ % of the cycle.
The inferential statistic most often used is the ________.
During mirror testing for proprioception, this is the limb that you as the therapist are moving.
a. Right limb
b. Left limb
c. Affected limb
d. Unaffected limb
A person was in a severe car accident and sustained a complete spinal cord injury. When tested for sensory loss, the therapist noted that the patient had abnormal sensation at the level of C7 and below, but normal sensation above this level. At what level was their spinal cord injury?
d. Both b and c