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A political candidate is often eager to win the endorsement of celebrities who are popular with hordes of people. The candidate hopes that the association of his or her campaign with a popular figure will result in the masses feeling more favorable toward his or her candidacy due to
a. evaluative conditioning.
c. the sleeper effect.
d. behavioral intent.
While watching the presidential debate on television, Matilda critically evaluated the arguments made by each candidate and was persuaded to support a particular candidate because of the quality of her arguments. Matilda exhibiteda. psychological reactance.
b. central route persuasion.
c. peripheral route persuasion.
d. insufficient justification.
Attitudes are best understood as:
a. being either entirely positive or entirely negative.
b. being initially positive but increasingly negative as new information arises.
c. varying in strength along both positive and negative dimensions.
d. ranging on a continuum from positive to negative.
Eric does not really know how to answer the essay question about cognitive dissonance on his social psychology exam. He decides to write as many facts as he knows about the topic of attitudes in his exam book, hoping that the professor will not read the exams too closely and will be impressed enough by the length of his essay to give him a good score. Eric is hoping to take advantage of
a. the sleeper effect.
b. the peripheral route to persuasion.
c. the central route to persuasion.
d. dissonance-related insufficient justification.
Which of the following concerning the impact of body movements on persuasion is true?
People who nod their heads up and down express greater agreement with a
persuasive message than those who nod their heads side to side.
Stimuli associated with stretching the arms outward are rated more positively than
those associated with flexing the arms inward.
Nodding the head side to side makes people more likely to engage in central route
processing than does nodding the head up and down.
Stretching the arms outward makes people less likely to engage in central route
processing than does flexing the arms inward.
Vicki is a lawyer who is trying to decide which of two forensic experts she should hire to provide testimony in a case. There is a large discrepancy in the fees each of the experts demands for their services. If Vicki wants the jurors to perceive her expert as trustworthy—and if she expects the witness’s fees to become part of the trial record when he testifies—then she should select
a. the more expensive expert.
b. the less expensive expert.
c. either one because of their status in their field.
d. the expert who has the most experience testifying in court.
As personal involvement regarding an issue increases,
a. the quality of the arguments becomes a more important determinant of persuasion.
b. the credibility of the speaker becomes a more important determinant of persuasion.
c. the attractiveness of the speaker becomes a more important determinant of
d. the likelihood of central route persuasion decreases.
A sleeper effect occurs when
a. persuasion occurs in response to subliminal stimuli.
b. a persuasive message from a noncredible source becomes more persuasive over
c. distraction interferes with the ability to pay attention to a persuasive message.
d. people fall asleep during exposure to a persuasive message.
Michael believes that one’s family is more important than one’s career. In order for him to successfully convince his achievement-oriented friend Ronald that he should also possess such a value system, Michael should
take the very discrepant position that careers never provide satisfaction anywhere
close to what a family provides.
use peripheral cues.
present as many arguments for his position as possible.
suggest more of a balance between family and career concerns than is currently
true for Ronald.
Professor Shackleford is elated because she has just learned that her paper has been accepted for publication. When a student passes her in the hallway and tells her that he missed the latest exam in order to stay home with his depressed cat, her good mood renders her likely to
a. be even more skeptical than usual about such an unlikely excuse.
b. be less skeptical than usual about the excuse.
c. overlook the student’s cognitive dissonance.
d. fall victim to the sleeper effect.
Your friend is thinking of purchasing a self-help weight-loss CD that promises its effects through subliminal persuasive messages embedded in the music. What should you tell her research shows about the effectiveness of such programs?
a. Such programs are very effective.
b. Such programs are somewhat effective, depending on the person.
c. No solid evidence exists to support such programs.
d. Subliminal messages work more effectively through visual (DVD) media than
audio (CD) media.
Research indicates that subliminal influence
a. never occurs.
b. usually occurs in the short term for simple judgments.
c. is more likely among people high in the need for cognition.
d. can persuade people to take action even when they were previously unmotivated to
People high in need for cognition are
a. more likely to process a message along the central route.
b. most persuaded by image-oriented appeals.
c. more likely to agree with a message if they are in a good mood.
d. more persuaded by the reputation and appearance of the source
Research demonstrates that exposure to weak versions of a persuasive argument tends to increase later resistance to that argument. This is consistent with
a. the discounting cue hypothesis.
b. self-perception theory.
c. cognitive dissonance theory.
d. the inoculation hypothesis.
A negative reaction to the feeling that one’s freedom is being threatened is called
a. cognitive dissonance.
b. psychological reactance.
d. the inoculation hypothesis.
Which of the following advertising slogans for a new stereo system would be most appealing to someone in a collectivist culture?
a. “Play all of your favorite CDs and hear every nuance.”
b. “Invite your friends over so they can dance to music of the highest clarity.”
c. “Don’t you want to have the best stereo in your neighborhood?”
d. “You work hard every day—why not treat yourself to something special?”
An unpleasant psychological state often aroused when people hold two conflicting cognitions is called
a. cognitive dissonance.
b. attitude ambivalence.
c. functional inconsistency.
A condition in which people refrain from engaging in a desirable activity, even though only mild punishment is threatened, is called
b. negative attitude change.
c. insufficient justification.
d. insufficient deterrence.
Shawna wants to join a sorority. This sorority has recently decided to put incoming members through various forms of initiation. Based on the findings of Aronson and Mills (1959), which of the following types of initiations is most likely to lead Shawna to come to identify strongly with the sorority and to value her membership in the group in the effort to avoid cognitive dissonance?
a. A mildly pleasant initiation
b. A neutral initiation
c. A mildly unpleasant initiation
d. A severely unpleasant initiation
Which of the following is not one of the four steps in the dissonance process?
b. Physiological arousal
c. Negative consequences
The idea that we infer our own attitudes by coolly observing ourselves and the circumstances of our behavior is most consistent with
a. planned behavior theory.
b. self-perception theory.
c. cognitive dissonance theory.
d. elaboration-likelihood theory.
After giving the matter a great deal of thought, Iris declared chemistry rather than physics as her major. Having made this decision, she went out and had a good time with her classmates, who reminded her what a great friend she was. At that point, Iris was able to look at her choice and see both its pros and cons without glamorizing it. Her behavior can best be explained by the concept of
b. cognitive dissonance.
c. impression management.
Cross-cultural research indicates that cognitive dissonance
exists in similar situations and manifests itself the same way in collectivist and
does not exist in collectivist societies.
can be seen across cultures, but emerges in different situations in different cultures.
is more common among women in individualistic cultures, but among men in
According to research by Emily Pronin and others (2007), which of the following explains why people perceive others to be more conforming than themselves?
a. People are poor judges of others’ motivations.
b. People tend to judge others by their overt behavior while judging themselves by
c. People judge themselves in the same way that that they judge others.
d. People judge others by asking them about their inner thought processes.
In comparison to obedience and compliance, conformity
a. involves less direct pressure from others.
b. occurs only in response to the behavior of a group of others.
c. requires the physical presence of at least one other person.
d. is more likely to produce destructive behaviors.
Sherif (1936) asked groups of participants to estimate the distance moved by a point of light. He found that
participants were more accurate when they were alone than when they were in groups.
participants were more accurate in groups than when they were alone.
as the study progressed, the participants’ estimates began to converge with each
as the study progressed, the participants’ estimates began to diverge from each
The primary difference between the research of Sherif (1936) and Asch (1951) is that
a. Sherif was able to demonstrate conformity, whereas Asch was not.
b. Asch was able to demonstrate conformity, whereas Sherif was not.
c. Sherif relied on an ambiguous task, whereas Asch used an unambiguous task.
d. Asch relied on an ambiguous task, whereas Sherif used an unambiguous task.
Will and Grace have just started to attend church. Will pays attention to when the rest of the congregation sits and stands because he wants to be sure to stand and sit at the appropriate times. Grace stands up and sits down when the rest of the congregation does because if she doesn’t, the elderly couple across the aisle scowls at her. Will has conformed because of _____, whereas Grace has conformed because of _____.
a. normative influence; informational influence
b. informational influence; normative influence
c. compliance; obedience
d. obedience; compliance
Normative influence tends to produce ____, whereas informational influence leads to ____.
a. compliance; obedience
b. conversion; compliance
c. public conformity; private conformity
d. pluralistic ignorance; pluralistic knowledge
As group size increases, conformity will
c. increase as long as each additional member of the group is perceived as an
independent source of influence.
d. decrease as long as each additional member of the group is perceived as an
independent source of influence.
Prentice and Miller (1996) found that most college students overestimate how comfortable their peers are with alcohol on campus. This misperception is an example of
a. pluralistic ignorance.
b. psychological reactance.
c. mass psychogenic illness.
d. the chameleon effect.
The fact that the presence of an ally, regardless of her competence, reduces conformity indicates that
informational social influence typically wins out over normative social influence in the long run.
it is exceedingly difficult to hold out against the pressure to conform without one supporter in the group.
conformity does not occur for high-stakes decisions with important repercussions.
men conform less in private than they do in public.
Women conform more and men conform less when they believe they are being observed. Eagly (1987) argues that this occurs because
being watched makes people self-aware, which brings out their underlying
women are easier to manipulate, whereas men tend to be more independent.
women and men tend to be knowledgeable about different kinds of topics.
people feel greater pressure in public to behave in ways consistent with their
Professor Hildebrand just gave back to his students their first exam. Many in the class are convinced that one of the questions he asked had more than one correct answer. In fact, 13 students from the class show up to his office hours to protest the question. Professor Hildebrand is convinced that there is only one correct answer, and so he tries to convince the larger group of students that he is right. He will be most likely to convince this group of his point of view if he
a. presents his arguments forcefully and consistently.
b. tries to exert normative social influence on the group of students.
c. presents himself as an outgroup member rather than as part of their in-group.
d. makes salient the norms of the group.
Research has found that when people are presented with a request accompanied by a reason that does not offer a real justification for the request, they often respond
a. with skeptical reactance.
b. by asking for a more complete explanation.
c. with surprise followed by caution.
d. by complying mindlessly.
The unspoken rule dictating that we should treat others as they have treated us is called the
a. social impact theory.
b. norm of reciprocity.
c. dual-process approach.
d. equity principle.
The compliance technique in which compliance to a desired request is increased by first gaining compliance to a smaller, but related, request is called
b. the that’s-not-all technique.
c. the foot-in-the-door technique.
d. the door-in-the-face technique.
The technique of getting a commitment from a potential customer and then changing the terms of the agreement is best described as
a. reciprocal concession.
b. cognitive dissonance.
c. the foot-in-the-door technique.
Jamie wants an extra day to write a paper for class. Jamie first asks the professor for a one- week extension for the paper assignment. The professor refuses. Jamie then asks for a one-day extension. The professor agrees. Jamie’s behavior best illustrates
a. the door-in-the-face technique.
b. the foot-in-the-door technique.
d. the dual-process approach.
One factor that did not seem related to the amount of obedience exhibited in the Milgram obedience study was the
a. participant’s sex.
b. proximity of the learner to the teacher.
c. location of the study.
d. physical presence of the experimenter.
The clearest and most important message of Milgram’s obedience studies is
a. the specific personality traits that predict destructive obedience to authority.
b. that people will typically harm another individual with little to no social pressure
to do so.
c. obedience to authority is most destructive when the authority figure is particularly
harsh and demanding.
d. the potential for situational influences to lead ordinary people to commit
extraordinarily destructive acts.
The nature of Milgram’s obedience research paradigm exploited which compliance- induction strategy?
b. Foot-in-the-door technique
c. Door-in-the-face technique
d. That’s-not-all technique
Stan is a new student in his sixth-grade class. The other students exert normative pressure on him to conform to their opinion on some issue. According to social impact theory, Stan will be more likely to resist this influence if
a. there are 20 rather than 11 students in the class.
b. he perceives the other students as having high status.
c. there are three other new students in the class who are receiving the same
d. he comes from a culture that values a collectivist orientation.
Which of the following is true of groups?
Groups differ from the sum of their parts.
Groups make better decisions than individuals.
People work harder in groups than they do alone.
Discussion moderates group opinions.
An important part of people’s self-worth is derived from group membership, according to
a. social identity theory.
b. the social brain hypothesis.
c. the escalation effect.
d. group support systems.
A leader who focuses his or her group on the task(s) it needs to achieve is playing a(n)
a. facilitator role.
b. instrumental role.
c. normative role.
d. expressive role.
The fact that members of an organization who blow the whistle on problematic practices are often treated harshly by the rest of the group illustrates the power of group
The tendency for the presence of other people to increase performance on easy tasks and impair performance on difficult tasks is known as
a. social loafing.
b. social facilitation.
c. group polarization.
The facilitation of the dominant response from increased arousal will tend to
a. make easy tasks easier but difficult tasks more challenging.
b. make both easy and difficult tasks easier.
c. have no effect on easy tasks, but will make difficult tasks more challenging.
d. have no effect on challenging tasks, but will make easy tasks easier.
All of the following accounts have been proposed to explain social facilitation except
a. the mere presence of others.
b. apprehension about being evaluated.
c. distraction, which can create attentional conflict.
d. a tendency for people to feel less accountable in a group context.
All of the following factors have been suggested to contribute to deindividuation except
a. the presence of others.
b. reduced feelings of responsibility.
c. low arousal.
Harriett goes trick-or-treating on Halloween. She arrives at her neighbor’s door just as the phone is ringing. Her neighbor puts the candy on the table and says, “I need to get the phone, so help yourself to whatever kind of candy you want, but please take only one piece.” Which of the following would most encourage Harriett to take only one piece of candy?
a. If Harriet’s costume prevented the neighbor from recognizing her
b. If Harriett was dressed up as a pirate
c. If the candy was placed in front of a mirror
d. If Harriett was high in need for cognition
Research on brainstorming in groups demonstrates that
people brainstorming together produce fewer and lower-quality ideas than those
people believe that the ideas generated in group brainstorming sessions are not as good
as those generated by individuals.
group brainstorming can be enhanced by production blocking.
people feel more comfortable expressing unusual ideas in group brainstorming
Which of the following is most accurate regarding the human need for affiliation?
a. People tend to prefer as much social contact with others as possible.
b. There is little variation between individuals when it comes to desired level of
c. People are motivated to maintain an optimum balance of time alone and social
d. On average, men in individualistic cultures desire more social contact than do
women, but in collectivist cultures, women prefer more than men.
Though they had all been together on the transcontinental flight for three hours, the passengers didn’t start to talk to one another until the plane ran into some serious turbulence. This behavior is best explained by the
a. tendency for external threat to increase affiliation.
b. matching hypothesis.
c. proximity effect.
d. evolutionary perspective on the sociostat.
According to the relevant research, who of the following is likely to be the loneliest?
a. José, who is an adolescent
b. Hector, who is 40 years old and has never been married
c. Selena, who is 60 years old and is married
d. Marble, who is 60 years old and has never been married
According to your textbook, the single best predictor of whether two people will get together is
b. matching levels of physical attractiveness.
c. physical proximity.
Mita et al. (1977) found that female college students preferred their own mirror image to their actual appearance. This finding is consistent with
a. the matching hypothesis.
b. mere exposure effects.
c. social exchange theory.
d. excitation transfer.
Lee (2008) and colleagues ran a study in which they examined people’s ratings of photos on the website HOTorNOT.com. They found that participants’ own level of attractiveness
a. were positive predictors of how attractive they rated the photos.
b. were negative predictors of how attractive they rated the photos.
c. did not predict their ratings of the photos.
d. predicted their ratings of male but not female photos.
Which of the following is not a reason why we seem to be attracted to averaged faces?
a. They are prototypically face-like.
b. They are symmetrical.
c. They look unusual.
d. They seem more familiar to us.
Snyder and colleagues (1977) ran a study in which mixed-gender pairs had a phone conversation. Male participants were given either an attractive or unattractive photo of their conversation partner. Which of the following statements about the study findings is false?
a. Men were friendlier toward the partners who they believed to be attractive.
b. The outcome of the conversation was more influenced by the women’s actual level
of attractiveness than by how attractive the men believed the women to be.
c. Men formed more positive impressions of the personality of women who they
believed to be attractive.
d. Women talking with men who believed they were attractive were actually warmer
and more confident during the conversation
Which of the following best reflects the benefits and cost of being attractive?
While attractiveness often brings a social advantage to attractive individuals, it can
cause them to doubt the sincerity of others’ praise for their work.
While attractiveness often brings heightened self-esteem to attractive individuals,
it can lead them to doubt others’ praise of their attractiveness.
While attractiveness often brings greater popularity to attractive individuals, it can
increase mental health difficulties.
While attractiveness often brings lifetime happiness to attractive individuals, it can
put pressure on them to maintain their appearance.
Popular wisdom is often contradictory, as with the following two sayings: 1) “opposites attract” and 2) “birds of a feather flock together.” Research on the relationship between similarity and liking suggests that
#1 is more accurate; people tend to be more attracted to those who are dissimilar
#2 is more accurate; people tend to be more attracted to those who are similar to
both are right for different people; heterosexual men tend to be attracted to similar
others whereas gay men tend to be attracted to dissimilar others.
both are right in different conditions; people are attracted to similar others when
they are interested in long-term relationships, but they prefer dissimilar others for less serious relationships without commitment.
Walster et al. (1966) randomly matched students for a dance. At the end of the evening, students indicated how satisfied they were with their dates. The strongest predictor of satisfaction was
a. physical attractiveness.
b. attitudinal similarity.
c. proximity of dorm rooms.
d. complementary personalities
Pinel and colleagues (2006) refer to “I-sharing” as an important form of similarity whereby individuals share
a. a subjective experience.
b. a level of physical attractiveness.
c. political ideologies.
d. technological expertise.
Wegner and colleagues (1994) conducted a study in which mixed-gender foursomes played a card game. Some couples were instructed to play “footsie” secretly under the table, some were instructed to do so out in the open, and others were not told to do anything at all. Findings indicated that participants reported being most attracted to their partner when
a. they had not been asked to play “footsie.”
b. they played “footsie” in secret.
c. they played “footsie” so that the other pair knew they were doing it.
d. they played either type of “footsie.”
Eastwick and Finkel (2008) examined men’s and women’s preferences during a speed dating event. They found significant gender differences in what men and women reported as important mate characteristics before the event began—differences that _________ once they actually started interacting with the potential mates at the event.
b. stayed constant
d. became more subtle
Who is more likely to value physical attractiveness in a potential male partner?
a. A woman who is in poverty
b. A woman who makes a moderate income
c. A woman who is fantastically wealthy
d. All of these will value physical attractiveness similarly in a potential mate
Bruce and Pam have just started dating. According to social exchange theory, their relationship is likely to last longer and be more satisfying if they each feel that
a. the rewards gained from the relationship are shared equally between them.
b. the costs of maintaining the relationship are shared equally between them.
c. the rewards gained from the relationship are equal to the costs of maintaining the
d. the rewards gained from the relationship are greater than the costs of maintaining
Zachary is unhappy in his relationship and is trying to decide whether to break up with his girlfriend. Which of the following factors might encourage him to stay?
a. If his comparison level for alternatives is high
b. If his comparison level is high
c. If his investment is high
d. If his costs for staying are high
In their relationship, Clyde is concerned with maintaining an equal ratio of rewards and costs, whereas Bonnie is concerned with being responsive to Clyde’s needs. Clyde views their relationship as a(n) ______ relationship, whereas Bonnie views it as a(n) ______ relationship.
a. reciprocal; exchange
b. exchange; communal
c. communal; passionate
d. passionate; companionate
According to Sternberg’s triangular theory of love, the basic components of love are
a. intimacy, passion, and commitment.
b. rewards, costs, and investments.
c. romance, companionship, and reciprocity.
d. ludus, eros, and storge.
Bruno just finished working out at the gym. On his way to the locker room, he passes Charmaigne, a very pretty woman. Bruno feels his heart pounding and is convinced that he must be in love with Charmaigne. Bruno’s feelings are best explained by
a. negative affect reciprocity.
b. excitation transfer.
c. psychological reactance.
d. social penetration.
When they first started dating, Norma and Nathan didn’t share much about themselves with one another, but as their relationship developed, they began to talk more about personal issues and reveal more about themselves. Their behavior is most consistent with the predictions of
a. the matching hypothesis.
b. equity theory.
c. the triangular theory of love.
d. social penetration theory.
In India and China, love is
a. essential for marriage.
b. emphasized more among females than males.
c. not a sufficient basis for marriage.
d. viewed in more dispositional terms than it is in America.
Which of the following conclusions is not supported by data?
a. Men often tend to see the world in “sexualized” terms.
b. Men are more likely to fantasize about sex with multiple partners.
c. Men tend to be more sexually permissive than women.
d. Women do not engage in casual sex without emotional commitment.
Survey research regarding adults’ life histories reveals that homosexuals are more likely than heterosexuals to have been
a. overattached to their same-sex parents as children.
b. sexually abused as children.
c. relatively late in the development of puberty.
d. None of these
Gay couples tend to _____ than straight couples.
a. divide household chores more evenly
b. retain relationships with former sex partners more
c. divide household chores more evenly and retain relationships with former sex
d. divide household chores more evenly and retain relationships with former sex
Carly hurls an insult right back at James when James expresses his negative feelings toward her. Such a pattern illustrates
a. social penetration.
b. a demand/withdraw interaction pattern.
c. negative affect reciprocity.
d. distress-maintaining attributions.
The evolutionary principle of kin selection dictates that we are more likely to help someone who is
a. a potential mate.
b. likely to return the favor.
c. physically attractive.
d. genetically similar to us.
Kelli always tries to be very helpful because she believes it increases her chances of receiving help at a future time. Kelli’s thinking most closely reflects the concept of
a. reciprocal altruism.
d. audience exhibition.
When Jo witnessed a serious plane crash, she felt compassion, sympathy, and tenderness for the victims. Her feelings are indicative of
a. anxious introspection.
b. perspective taking.
c. personal distress.
d. empathic concern.
Which hormone has been implicated by neuroscientists in empathy and prosocial behaviors?
The negative state relief model of helping behavior
a. supports the existence of altruism in the real world.
b. applies more to emergencies than to non-emergency situations.
c. identifies yet another way in which helping can be egoistic.
d. All of these
Research by Rilling et al. (2002) suggests that ________ behavior is linked to activation of the brain in areas associated with processing rewards.
c. evolutionarily adaptive
d. mutually cooperative
“Good Samaritan” laws
a. encourage bystanders to intervene in emergencies.
b. increase the cost of failing to help.
c. are fairly rare in the United States.
d. All of these
According to the empathy-altruism hypothesis, altruistic behavior is primarily the result of
a. taking another’s perspective.
b. rewards and costs.
c. personal distress.
The empathy-altruism model suggests that when escape from a situation is easy, people will
a. offer help only when they have empathic concern.
b. offer help only when they are in a good mood.
c. almost always exhibit altruism.
d. be likely to experience empathic concern.
Research by Omoto and Snyder (1995) found that volunteers who decided to help AIDS victims had _____ service if their motives were _____.
a. longer; self-oriented
b. longer; other-oriented
c. shorter; religious
d. shorter; egoistic
Which of the following is not one of the five steps to helping proposed by Latané and Darley (1970)?
a. Interpret the event as an emergency
b. Invoke the norm of reciprocity
c. Take responsibility for providing help
d. Notice that something is happening
Dewanto hears what sounds like gunshots coming from the school parking lot. None of his classmates appears concerned, so Dewanto assumes that they know the sound was only a car backfiring or someone playing with firecrackers. Dewanto’s beliefs illustrate
a. diffusion of responsibility.
b. empathic concern.
c. audience inhibition.
d. pluralistic ignorance.
The belief that others will or should take the responsibility for providing assistance to a person in need is called
a. the bystander effect.
b. diffusion of responsibility.
c. pluralistic ignorance.
d. audience inhibition.
According to Latané and Darley’s (1970) five-step model of helping, analysis of costs and rewards occurs at what step?
a. Noticing the event
b. Interpreting the event as an emergency
c. Taking responsibility to help
d. Providing help
Darley and Batson (1973) found that the helping behavior of seminary students was best predicted by
a. how religious they were.
b. the type of speech they were about to give.
c. how much time they had.
d. the sex of the person being helped
As she is about to walk into the grocery store, Melissa sees a woman struggling with her groceries. Melissa is most likely to help this woman if
a. the woman is obviously drunk.
b. the store is located in an urban environment.
c. Melissa only has five minutes to purchase her donuts and beer, and get to work on time.
d. Melissa feels guilty about having parked in the handicapped space.
Which social norm suggests that people who are fairly well-off in life should use their position to help those who are in need?
a. Norm of social responsibility
b. Norm of reciprocity
c. Norm of equity
d. Norm of justice
Kevin asks Winnie to drive him to the airport. Though Winnie doesn’t really want to, she agrees because Kevin loaned her money last week. Winnie agreed to help because of the norm of
Which of the following combinations of traits has been shown to be essential to helping?
a. Extroversion and conscientiousness
b. Empathy and advanced moral reasoning
c. Empathy and introversion
d. Independence and conscientiousness
Manny needs help, and Pedro is capable of giving it. Pedro is more likely to help if he
a. perceives Manny as responsible for his predicament.
b. is low on agreeability.
c. endorses the norm of justice more than the norm of social responsibility.
d. has a shared identity with Manny.
Some cross-racial helping is not truly altruistic because it can be a sign of
a. kin selection.
d. feelings of superiority over the person being helped.
Whether or not someone seems responsible for her own predicament is more influential on helping behavior
a. in individualistic cultures.
b. when the target in need of help is male.
c. when the person in need of help is a family member.
d. in collectivist cultures.
The defining characteristic of aggression is that the aggressor
a. intends to injure another living being.
b. actually causes physical or psychological harm.
c. is angry or otherwise emotionally aroused during the aggressive act.
d. derives enjoyment from the aggressive act.
Proactive is the same as _____ aggression, while reactive is the same as _____ aggression.
a. relational; impersonal
b. emotional; instrumental
c. instrumental; emotional
d. impersonal; relational
When Katie found out that her brother Matt had pulled the heads off all of her Barbie dolls, she threw her Easy Bake oven at him. Katie’s behavior illustrates
a. instrumental aggression.
b. proactive aggression.
c. incompatible responses.
d. reactive aggression.
One form of violence that seems to be fairly consistent across cultures is
a. violence against young girls.
b. gun violence.
c. domestic violence.
Based on Bonta’s (1997) research on nonviolent societies, a powerful way to reduce violence within a society would be to
a. emphasize a strict division of labor by gender.
b. promote cooperation.
c. harshly punish all acts of aggression.
d. separate subcultures within the society.
The relatively greater violence rates in the southern United States has been attributed to
a. greater variability of temperature in the South than in the North.
b. the manner in which residents of the South respond to status threats.
c. the ratio of males to females living in the South.
d. the age demographics of the South.
Though women are more likely than men to aggress in an intimate relationship, men’s aggression in such relationships differs in that it typically
a. emerges in the face of provocation.
b. has more severe consequences.
c. results from alcohol abuse.
d. is sexual in nature.
Regarding self-esteem and aggression, which of the following is false?
a. Narcissism is a good predictor of aggression.
b. Low self-esteem is a good predictor of aggression.
c. Narcissism is correlated with aggression in response to provocation.
d. High self-esteem is predictive of aggression when combined with narcissism and
Prida has witnessed a violent crime involving a knife. Research suggests that he will be less likely to identify the culprit than in a situation where no knife was present because Prida will
b. focus more on the victim.
c. spend more time looking at the knife.
d. be too afraid to remember anything accurately.
Tony, Silvio, Paulie, and Christopher were all in the convenience store when it was robbed. Who is likely to be the most reliable eyewitness?
a. Tony,who was the only one to notice that the thief was brandishing a gun
b.Silvio, who was extremely aroused by the whole incident
d. Christopher, who is the same race as the thief
Kwame, a noted psychologist, has been called as an expert witness in a trial. Kwame is likely to provide testimony concerning all of the following except
b. police instructions can influence an eyewitness’s confidence.
d. hypnosis increases the accuracy of eyewitness memory.
innocence in those who are innocent.
b. are difficulty to fake
c. can be fairly accurate when the suspects naive and the examiner is competent
d. can be admitted into evidence in all district courts throughout the US.
A police officer testifies that the defendant in a murder trial confessed to the crime. Under cross-examination, the officer reveals details of the interrogation that suggest it is likely that the defendant was coerced into confessing. How are jurors likely to react to the confession evidence?
a.Jurors will discount the confession because it was coerced.b.Jurors will accept the confession because as a general rule jurors don’t believe that people would confess to a crime that they did not commit.
From the court’s perspective, the voir dire process is intended to
a.allow the lawyers to presentevidencetothejudgewithoutthejurors
b. identify and dismiss prospective jurors who may be biased.
c.familiarize prospective jurors with one another before they begin
d. familiarize prospective jurors with the facts of the case prior to the
Lawyers may dismiss prospective jurors without having to justify their dismissal by using
b. sentencing disparity.
d. normative influence.
The use of community surveys to identify correlations between demographics and attitudes relevant to the trial is called
a. scientific jury selection.
b. implicit personality theories.
d. the leniency bias.
c.ajuryselectionprocedurethatpermitsjudgestoexcludefromcapital cases all prospective jurors who say they would refuse to vote for the death penalty under any circumstance.
d. jurors’ decision to recommend the death penalty even if the prosecution has not asked for it.
Prospective jurors who indicate a willingness to vote for the death penalty typically exhibit all of the following except
b. more negative attitudes toward defense attorneys.
d. a greater tendency to convict.
All of the following are true about jury forepersons except that they:
a. tend to be the individuals who sepal first in the jury room
b. usually spend more time discussing procedural matters than indicating their opinion about the trial
c. are usually chosen after a careful, deliberate discussion among jury members
d. tend to moderate jury discussions more than dominate them
As deliberation begins, nine jurors think that the defendant is guilty. At first, the three jurors who think otherwise are resistant to changing their minds, but after hearing what the others have to say, they are genuinely persuaded and decide to vote guilty. The factor most likely to have led these three jurors to change their verdict is
b. the influence of peremptory challenges.
d. informational influence.
Relative to large juries, smaller juries may spend less time deliberating mostly because they are
b. more likely to have a male foreperson.
d. not used in trials involving complex decisions.
Sentencing disparity refers to the
b. fact that judges believe that the purpose of sentencing the convicted is deterrence, but the general public believes the purpose is retribution.
c.tendencyforjudgestogiveharshersentencesforfinancialcrimesvs non-financial, despite differences in the recidivism rates of the crimes.
d. difference between the sentence given by a judge and the amount of time a convicted offender actually serves.
Judge Kellogg has just read a case file in which a defendant who had committed statutory rape was sentenced to 25 years in prison. He is considering sentencing in a statutory rape case in which the prosecutor is asking for 10 years for the defendant. Instead of going with the 10 years recommended by the prosecutor, he chooses to impose a sentence of 22 years. Judge Kellogg’s decision illustrates the _____ effect.
a. anchoring b. severity
c. adversarial d. inquisitorial
The Stanford University prison simulation teaches us that
the conditions at privately-run prisons are far superior to those at state-
degree to which the prisoners will use their prison time in a
even normal people can be dehumanized by institutional roles and
Ming was involved in a civil dispute that came to trial. Though unhappy with the judge’s decision, he felt that he truly had the chance to express his views and present his case completely. Ming apparently was most satisfied with
d. the deliberation stage.
A dispute resolution system in which the prosecution and defense present opposing sides of the story is called a(n) _____ model.
According to your text, in terms of punishment, the most notable cultural difference concerns the
b. death penalty.
d. harshness of the prison environment.
Dr. Henry is a psychologist who studies practical issues concerning personnel selection, performance appraisals, and group leadership. She is probably a(n)
a. clinical psychologist.
b. experimental psychologist.
c. economic/applied psychologist.
d. industrial/organizational psychologist.
The Hawthorne effect refers to
a. the relationship between working conditions and job satisfaction.
b. the finding that workers who were given special attention increased their
productivity regardless of what actual changes were made in the work setting.
c. the fact that employees become so engaged in their work that they are immune to
d. the tendency for bright levels of illumination to decrease worker productivity.
Which of the following has been demonstrated in research on traditional employment interviews?
a. Interviews tend to be very high in predictive validity.
b. Applicants who exhibit the least amount of self-promotion are likely to be hired. c. Interviews eliminate biases toward physically attractive applicants.
d. An employer’s expectations can distort the interview process.
Jaycie is extremely judgmental. She has strong opinions about politics, social issues, and moral concerns. Jaycie is high in the
a. need for cognition.
b. need for evaluation.
c. evaluative conditioning.
d. cognitive dissonance.
One potential problem with self-report measures is that
a. they do not provide information concerning the intensity of an attitude.
b. they do not provide information concerning the direction of an attitude.
c. respondents might not respond truthfully.
d. it is not possible to assess the validity of self-report measures.
Cacioppo and Petty (1981) recorded facial muscle activity of college students as they listened to a message with which they agreed or disagreed. The results of this study indicated that listening to a(n) _____ message increases activity in the _____.
a. disagreeable; cheek muscles
b. disagreeable; chin muscles
c. agreeable; cheek muscles
d. agreeable; muscles in the forehead and brow area
Implicit Association Tests (IATs) can detect implicit attitudes by measuring
a. the participants’ mood after responding to word pairings.
b. the time it takes participants to complete the whole test.
c. participants’ facial muscles as they are exposed to positive or negative stimuli.
d. the speed at which participants associate stimuli with a positive or negative word.
The theory of planned behavior posits that behavior is a function of attitudes, subjective norms, behavioral intentions, and
a. the amount of time we have considered engaging in the behavior.
b. the correspondence between the attitude and the behavior.
c. the amount of control we perceive to have over our behavior.
d. the costs of engaging in the behavior.
An attitude that is brought to mind quickly and easily is said to be:
Which factor has the biggest impact on whether or not there will be a primacy or recency effect in persuasion?
b. Source credibility
c. Source likeability
d. Number of sides presented
The tendency to unconsciously mimic the nonverbal behavior of others is called
a. reciprocation wariness.
b. pluralistic ignorance.
c. the ally effect.
d. the chameleon effect.
Source credibility is determined by
c. competence and trustworthiness.
d. competence, trustworthiness, and likeability.
A task in which the group’s performance is determined by the best group member is considered a. additive.
Which of the following is not one of the emotions a person is likely to feel after being ostracized?
Interpersonal credits a person earns by following group norms are called _____ credits.
Ingham (1974) asked participants to pull on a rope and found that participants pulled almost 20 percent harder when they thought they were pulling alone than when they thought they were part of a group. This finding best illustrates
a. social loafing.
b. individual performance theory.
d. social facilitation.
Recent DNA exoneration cases have revealed the most common cause of mistaken convictions to be
b. false alibis.
d. inaccurate eyewitnesses.
After Natalie testifies in court that she witnessed the defendant committing the crime in question, a memory expert is called to testify on behalf of the defense. The expert testifies that Natalie’s ability to encode the information accurately was probably impaired. Which of the following circumstances did the expert most likely have in mind when he questioned Natalie’s ability to acquire the information accurately?
b. Reconstructive memory
- disabilities having to do with PERFORMANCE of sex or SATISFACTION derived from it.
- must be chronic, and it could be global (any relationship) or specific (1 person)
What are the varieties of sexual dysfunction that were mentioned in class? Be able to define each.
According to the article, "sexual misunderstanding," what is the common difference between men and women in the significance they attach to the act of sexual intercourse? How can this difference lead to problems in their relationship?
-lovemap - person’s sexual blueprint/preferred sexual scenario/captures what is most erotically charged for P.
-taught in childhood: can't put sex + love together
-loving sexuality + making love IMPOSSIBLE
-paraphilia = SOLUTION (turn tragedy into TRIUMPH)
1. child is degraded and this gives them the seen to be self-affirmed
2. paraphilic ritual >> preferred scenario that represents attempted recovery from degradation
3. urges are powerful becuaes notmal sexual motivation and need for recovery creates a powerful cocktail
What three general criteria are used to determine when substance use has become substance dependence?
population baseline 13.2%
fraternal twins 28%
identical twins 54%
2. Nature of possible genetic factor: an individual difference in drug (alcohol) responsiveness (possibly related to pleasure derived from alcohol)
What was the primary theory advanced in class regarding why Jonathan B. drank?
What, if any, role might Jonathan's wife have played in his drinking?
“The inability to cathect (be interested in) others except insofor as they gratify self in some way”
- only interested in other people if there is something in it for you
- we start off narcissistic (baby)
Being so desperate to get needs for affirmation met by others precludes being invested in others for their own sake (i.e. loving them)
Narcissist no longer interested in the other once “tribute has been exacted” (once they have gotten what they want out of a person)
- May also fear “when they really get to know me, they will learn the deeper truth and stop admiring and loving me, and I couldn’t stand that”
Normal person: because of impulses that you have, you think your relationships and goals would be damaged/think the impulse is immoral. So when you get down to action you think you shouldn’t do it, so you don’t
Impulsive Antisocial Person: jump straight from impulse to action “shot circuit”, lacks an adequately developed ego and super ego. Result: when s/he gets and antisocial impulse, they lack the “resistors” to resist such an impulse
How does Bergner's theory explain why the impulsive psychopath behaves as s/he does?
Partners don’t recognize that their own sexual perspective differs from their partners’ nor do they understand their partners’ perspectives. Both interpret the actions of their partners in light of their own perspectives
* Sexual dysfunction affects one or more of the first 3 phases
Viagra, Cialis, Levitra:
drugs that increases blood flow to the penis within one hour of ingestion; the increases blood flow enables the user to attain an erection during sexual activity
*effectively restore erections in 75% of men who use them
-voyeurism is when a person"spies" on other people. They may masturbate during this spying session, on couples have intercourse or other people changing.
-frotteurism is when aperson has a fantasy (or actually does) regarding rubbing a non-consenting person.
Some clinicians argue that except when people are hurt by them, many paraphilic behaviors should not be considered disorders at all. Especially in light of the self-revulsion people feel towards themselves when they believe they have such a disorder, so we need to be careful about applying these labels to people
- genetic or prenatal
- disorder can run in families
- heightened blood flow in the insula and reduced blood flow in the anterior cingulate cortex
- decreased size in BST in men (making it more like the size of a woman’s)
- sexual abuse is likely to produce fears, attitudes and memories found in sexual dysfunctions
sexual aversion is also common in victims of sexual abuse
- individuals can experience vivid flashbacks of assault during adult sexual activity
Aversion therapy: electric shock
Covert sensitization (imagine fantasized object then pair it with aversive object)
identity disorder for which individuals commonly seek treatment?
-Female to male gender dysphoria
-Male to female gender dysphoria (adrophilic type): born male but act in stereotypical female manner from birth
-Male to female (autogynephilic type):Not attracted to males, attracted to fantasy of themselves being females
What are some reasons for and against sexual reassignment as a treatment for gender identity disorder?
What does research indicate about teaching controlled drinking versus abstinence when treating alcoholism?
What is involved in psychodynamic therapy for substance abuse? Has it been found to be effective?
What are the categories of substances that people misuse fall under? How do they differ?
- when you consume 5 or more drinks on a single occasion it is considered binge drinking
- 24% of people in the US over the age of 11 binge drink each month
- men are more likely to do it than women
Damage to brain.
Impairments in short term memory, speed of thinking, attention skills, and balance
According to the “Psych Watch” section on p. 352, which students are most likely to binge-drink?
According to a sociocultural view, what factors may make people more likely to develop pattern of substance abuse or dependence?
What is involved in relapse prevention training?
How do self-help treatment programs (like Alcoholics Anonymous) offer
support to those people with alcoholism?
the basic structure of personality consists of 5 supertraits or factors:
--openness to experinence
everyones personality can be summarized using a combo of these 5 traits
How may biological factors play into the presence of antisocial personality disorder?
Usually avoid treatment because they do not feel anything wrong
Uncooperative and manipulative in treatmentPsychotherapy, pharmacology, group therapy not effective
What are some common occurrences in the childhoods of people with borderline personality disorder?
People with which personality disorder are most likely to seek treatment on their own?
What are some problems with the DSM-IV-TR categories of personality disorders? What is an alternative conceptualization of personality disorders discussed in the text?
The tendency for false post-event information to become integrated into a person’s memory for the event is called the
b. familiarity-induced bias.
d. positive coercion bias.
If you know the majority opinion in a jury prior to deliberation, you know what the jury decision will be. What provides the strongest exception to his conclusion?
a. Jury nullification
b. The leniency bias
c. Voir dire
d. Death qualification
All of the following are potential motivations that underlie punishment in the criminal justice system except
Used when the data are measured on an interval or ratio scale
-Height of bar corresponds to frequency
-There are no spaces in between
As one variable increases, the other one decreases
The sum of the squared deviations
1. Adding a constant to each score is the distribution will not change the Std. Dev.
2. Multiplying each score by a constant causes the Std. Dev. to be multiplied by the same constant.
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