Milk that can be stored for months at room temperature has been treated by which of the following methods?
ultrahigh temperature sterilization
Which of the following pairs of radiation types are both classified as nonionizing radiation?
UV light and infrared
Hydrogen peroxide does not make a good antiseptic for open wounds because
catalase in human tissues neutralizes it
A response that is uniquely directed against pathogenic Mycobacterium tuberculosis would involve what component?
First line defenses have what aspect in common with each other?
they are physical barriers against invading pathogens
Both the innate and adaptive defenses of the immune system work to prevent
the penetration and colonization by pathogens, and the diseases they cause
If a new bacterial pathogen entered a human body through an accidental needle stick, the first cell that would try to kill the pathogen would likely be
Mucous membranes are a part of
B cells interact directly with
helper T cells
Which defense systems would be involved in fighting a viral pathogen?
Antibdies interact with which innate defenses?
phagocytosis and the complement system
Which cells directly attack abnormal cells in the body?
Cytotoxic T cells
An inflammatory response would result from what?
a jellyfish sting
If a person turns their ankle, how would one determine if damage to the tissue in the ankle has occurred?
the ankle is red, swollen, and warm to the touch
What is the function of inflammation in response to a burn from a hot iron?
to repair the damaged tissue
What direct effect do histamines and leukotrienes have on capillaries?
They allow capillary walls to open and become leaky
the migration of phagocytes through blood vessels to the site of tissue damage
Why is vasodilation important to tissue repair?
it allows for an increased delivery of oxygen, nutrients, and phagocytes to the site of damage
Pus is comprised of
Which can release histamines?
cells from damaged tissues and the complement pathway
Phagocytosis is defined as
the ingestion of solid material by a eukaryotic cell
How is phagocytosis in the immune system different from protozoan phagocytosis?
protozoan phagocytosis is used for feeding, phagocytosis by immune cells is used to fight infection
What does the plasma membrane of a phagocyte attach to on a microorganism?
The process by which a phagocyte moves toward a chemical signal at the site of an infection is called
Which phagocytic processes occur in the last sequence?
What is the role of opsonins?
they create handles that make it easier for the pseudopods of phagocytes to attach to the microbe invader
What is a phagolysosome?
the structure that results from the fusion of a phagosome and a lysosome
how is streptococcus pneumoniae able to avoid destruction by a phagocyte?
their capsules make them slippery to phagocytes
Which microorganism requires the low pH inside a phagolysosome in order to reproduce?
Which microorganism uses M protein to avoid destruction of a phagocyte?
Which part of the adaptive immune response involves B cells?
Antibodies are part of which type of immunity?
Which of the following best characterizes clonal selection?
the production of identical B cells producing the same antibody
What is produced by the process of clonal expansion?
plasma cells and memory B cells
An antigen that is potent enough to activate a B cell on its own is known as
T independent antigens
based on the animation, T cells recognized the antigen displayed by what receptor protein of the B cell?
How can a sufficient humoral immune response occur if a plasma cell only lives for a few days?
each plasma cell can produce up to 2000 antibodies every second
The primary immune response involves
a slow rise in the concentration of antibodies, followed by a gradual decline
For approximately how many days is IgG present in the serum?
on what day of the primary immune response does IgM first appear?
which cells are involved in a secondary immune response
memory B cells and plasma cells
How is the secondary response different from the primary response in terms of antibody concentration in the blood?
the secondary response is faster and produces more antibodies than the first response
on which day does the production of IgG occur in the secondary response?
An anamnestic response is
another name for secondary response
what makes agglutination by antibodies possible?
each antibody has at least two antigen-binding sites
What is the role of plasma cells in humoral immunity?
plasma cells produce antibodies
How might a pathogenic bacterium be affected by antibodies?
the antibodies may block proteins necessary for binding the pathogen to the host, may opsonize the bacterium, or may agglutinate the bacteria
Whch type of cell directly attacks infected cells?
cytotoxic T cells
Cytokines are produced by which of the following cells?
helper T cells
HIV directly infects T cells, why is this problematic for cell mediated immunity?
cytotoxic T cells begin to attack the virally infected T cells, reducing the number of T cells in the body
How do helper T cells and cytotoxic T cells work together?
helper T cells produce cytokines to activate other cells of the immune system
Which receptor on the helper T cell recognizes the specific antigen from an antigen-presenting cell?
TH2 cells produce cytokines that activate
Which proteins on the antigen-presenting cell are recognized by the helper T cell?
When do helper T cells develop into TH1 and TH2 cells?
after proliferation into a clonal population
Natural killer cells are activated by
What is apoptosis?
the process of programmed cell death
What is the function of the CD8 receptor?
bind to MHC molecules
What is the fate of activated cytotoxic T cells?
they proliferate into a clone of cells specific to the same antigen, some of these cells then differentiate into long-lived memory T cells, while others mature to attack infected cells
Which molecule triggers apoptosis?
Which event happens first during cytotoxic T cell activation?
CD8 binds to MHC molecules of infected cells
Antigen processing and presentation
is a way for a cell to give information about its activities
Why would a body cell that is not a phagocyte need to present antigens?
non-phagocytic body cells can become infected with a virus
How do phagocytes communicate to other cells what they have captured?
they present antigens from engulfed foreign cells
Which structure do antigen presenting cells utilize to directly help them present bacterial antigens?
Which of the following are likely to be found on an MHC 1 protein?
damaged mitochondrial fragment
What would a virally infected skin epithelial cell have on its cell surface?
Class I MHC with skin cell antigens
Which of the following would you likely see on the surface of a human dendritic cell following phagocytosis of a bacterium?
class I MHC with dendritic cell antigens and Class II MHC with engulfed bacteria
Where would you most likely find bacteriophage antigens?
macrophage Class II MHC proteins
Where are MHC molecules located on a cell?
on the surface of the cell
What is a feature of the small fragments presented by MHC I proteins?
they are small peptides, roughly 8-10 amino acids long
Which organelle assists directly with the presentation of MHC I antigens?
the endoplasmic reticulum
When does MHC II loading occur?
during the fusion of vesicles containing MHC II proteins with vesicles containing digested pathogens
Which of the cells can present antigens on Class II MHC proteins?
What does a vaccine contain?
weakened or killed pathogen or parts of a pathogen
When a person has previously been vaccinated against a viral pathogen, which cells are activated if that same pathogen re-enters the host's cells months or years later?
memory cytotoxic T cells
what is the primary benefit of vaccination?
an immune response will occur quicker upon future exposure to the pathogen
Which type of vaccine could possibly cause a person to develop the disease?
attenuated live vaccine
What is the hallmark of a conjugated vaccine?
these vaccines contain weakly antigenic elements plus a more potent antigenic protein
the influenza vaccine is an example of an
inactivated killed vaccine
what is the function of boosters?
boosters are injection that are given periodically to maintain immunity
the hep B vaccine is which type of vacine?
Attenuated virus vaccines can be produced by which of the following processes?
growth in tissue culture cells for many generations
Which type of vaccine should not be given to pregnant women or immunocompromised individuals?
Individuals with egg allergies cannot receive flu vaccines because of the risk of which thing?
A researcher who wants to produce contact immunity in a population would probably use which of the following types of vaccines?
an attenuated vaccine
One of the advantages of the oral poliovirus vaccine is that it contains an attenuated strain of the virus that is excreted from the intestinal tract of the immunized individual, usually a baby or young child. This is an example of what?
both contact and herd immunity
In which of the following situations would pooled antisera from human donors be a better choice for passive immunotherapy then would horse driven antisera?
a patient receiving long term treatment for an immunodeficiency disease
In which of the following situations would one expect to see no extensive precipitation of antigen antibody complexes?
antigen or antibody excess
The immunoCAP specific IgE blood test is used to diagnose which type of hypersensitivity?
A person with type B blood can receive blood from individuals with which of the following blood types?
type B or O
A student develops allergic contact dermatitis after being exposed to formaldehyde in the lab. She tries to treat the condition by taking an antihistamine, but the drug has little or no effect. Which of the following treatments should she consider using instead?
Which of the following groups of individuals is more susceptible in general to autoimmune diseases?
A patient that is experiencing deficits in vision, speech, and neuromuscular function may be suffering from which of the following autoimmune diseases?
Individuals with which disease would be expected to have very low antibody titers overall?
SCID and bruton type agammaglobulinemia
The inability to make reactive forms of oxygen that is associated with chronic granulomatous disease results in a deficiency in which of the following areas?
Which of the following is an effective way to prevent many staphylococcal infections?
proper cleansing of wounds
A strain of staphylococcus aureus that does not produce enterotoxins can cause
can't cause food poisoning
Which strep infection is usually fatal?
Enterococcus is most likely to be confused with members of which genera in clinical specimens?
Which specimen causes infections characterized by tissue death and foul smelling gaseous waste products?
Which of the following characteristics of Listeria is most useful for its isolation in clinical settings?
growth at 4 degrees C
The cell death observed in corynebacterium diphtheriae infections results from interference with which of the following cellular processes?
a patient has a positive tuberculin skin test. Without any other information about the patient which of the following is the most accurate interpretation of this result?
the patient has been exposed to m. tuberculosis
Which organism would be most resistant to chemical germicides?
Which conditions will sterilize?
121 degrees celcius with 15 psi steam for 20 mins
100 degrees celcius boiling water for 20 minutes
123 degrees celcius 20 psi chemical vapor for 20 minutes
what will affect the antimicrobial kill of a chemical agent?
concentration of agent
length of exposure
Which surface disinfectant is best able to perform in the presence of organic material?
75 percent ethyl alcohol
which antimicrobial is most effective at killing microorganisms on the hands?
4 percent chlorhexidine
inhibitors of cell wall synthesis like penicillin
work only on growing cells
are not effective in inhibiting plant and animal cell growth
are non toxic to animal cells
the most effective route of antibiotic administration in terms of achieving immediate high levels in the serum is
the skin is microbial hell because
it is devoid of nutrients
it is dry and salty
toxic fatty acids are present
and it is constantly desquamating
the most abundant leukocyte in the blood is the
complement activation results in
lysis of the foreign cell
maybe upregulation of inflammation, opsonization for phagocytosis, and positive chemotaxis for leukocytes?
What are the cardinal signs of inflammation?
redness, swelling, pain, heat
The bursa of Fabriscius in birds is what type of lymphoid tissue?
primary lymphoid tissue (bone marrow)
How many epitopes can react with a single molecule of IgM?
How many different MHC Class 1 molecules are expressed on the cells of a normal human?
MHC class II has more
Viral protein antigen fragments from the cytosol are combined with
MHC class 1
phagocytized stuff in the cytosol is combined with
MHC class 2
vaccines induce what type of immunity?
artificially acquired active
the vaccine for which of the following diseases is a toxoid?
diphtheria and tetanus
Passive immunity can be transferred from one individual to another by transferring
The difference between precipitation and agglutination reactions is
the solubility state of the antigen (precipitation is soluble and agglutination is insoluble)
Indirect tests are more common than direct tests because
they are cheaper to perform, oyu can use the same antibody for a lot of different tests (or easier and faster)
MAst cell granules contain mostly
A person with blood type O would have
anti-A antibodies in their blood
anti-B antibodies in their blood
neither A nor B antigens on their RBCS
Most of the damage in type III hypersensitivity is caused by
destructive products released from neutrophiles
the only type of hypersensitivity not mediated by antibody is
Which of the following is not an autoimmune disease?
The reason Rely Tampons caused severe toxic shock syndrome was
their composition chelated magnesium
which streptococcal disease is associated with the highest mortality?
two ways to distinguish between s. pyogenes and s. pneumoniae would be
hemolysis type and catalase test
the type of anthrax characterized by the black eschar lesion is
the disease for which hyperbaris oxygen is useful as a treatment is
Listeria monocytogenes is able to cause disease because
it has an antiphagocytic capsule
mycoplasmas are unusual bacteria in that they
have an obligate requirement for cholesterol
have no cell walls
are extremely pleomorphic
and they are the smallest free living microbes
Corynebacterium diphtheriae is able to cause disease because
of the potent exotoxin it produces
the cell infiltrates present in a positive TB skin test would be
lymphocytes and macrophages
is a very slow growing organism
is a very infectious organism
is naturally resistant to most antibiotics
the type of leprosy in which you find large numbers of organisms in the skin and a low cell mediated immune response is called
Pairs of mycobacteria
M. leprae- armadillos
M. tuberculosis- cord factor
M. leprae- hansen's disease
M. ulcerans- buruli ulcer
M. ulcerans- mycolactone
two drugs important in treating tuberculosis
isoniazid (INH) and rifampin
what does isoniazid do?
inhibits acid fast cell wall formation
what does rifampin do?
inhibits the enzyme in bacteria that makes mRNA, the DNA dependent RNA polymerase
what two drugs do we combine together to inhibit folic acid synthesis?
trimethalprim and sulfa drugs
what are names of drugs that are combinations of trimethalprim and sulfad rugs?
bactrim or septra
what do bactrim and septra do (trimethalprim and sulfa)?
inhibit sequential steps of folic acid metabolism, making purines and pyrimidines
what are semisynthetic antibiotics?
half is made by a microbe and half is made by a chemist
how to make -cillins
take penicillin G that is made by fungus
modify it on its one functional site
turn it into amoxicillin, titracillin, etc.
two functional sites to modify
fourth generation cephalosporins are modified in so many different ways
most produced and most used antibiotics on the planet, also most expensive
cephalosporins and penicillins are ____ drugs
what do beta lactam drugs like penicillin and cephalorporins do?
inhibit cell wall synthesis by inhibiting peptidoglycan synthesis
what class of drugs does streptomycin belong?
why are streptomycins unusual?
they can't ever be given orally, they are broken down by the stomach so you have to inject them
you have to be in the hospital to get them
mechanism of action of streptomycin (aminoglycoside)
inhibit protein synthesis
first used antibiotic
which antibiotic produces the most allergies
what group is erythromycin in?
large, cyclic lactones
mechanism of action of erythromycin (macrolides)
inhibit protein synthesis
what is one of the most common mechanisms of action?
protein synthesis inhibition
what group is tetracycline in?
mechanism of action of tetracyclines
inhibit protein synthesis
what class is ciproflaxacin in?
mechanism of action of quinolones
bacterial DNA gyrase inhibition
what polypeptide antibiotic is found in neosporin?
how does bacitracin in neosporin work?
inhibits strep A, inhibits cell wall synthesis
inhibits RNA transcription
what is the antifungal gold standard?
mechanism of action of amphotericin B?
makes fungal membranes leaky
three antiviral agents
acyclovir (ganciclovir)- herpes, inhibits DNA and RNA synthesis
ribavirin- RSV, hep C, influenza A, measles, dengue, inhibits DNA and RNA synthesis
AZT- HIV, Hep B, inhibits DNA synthesis, protease inhibitor
mechanism of action of antiviral agents
nucleoside analogs, they screw things up
metronidazole- anaerobic conditions reduce the drug, which then damages DNA, preventing correct replication and transcription
black hairy tongue is a side effect
cell wall synthesis inhibition drugs
bacitracin, beta lactams, cycloserine, ethambutol, isoniazid, and vancomycin
molecules that have a molecular label, easily detected
fluorescent, ELISA, western blot
fluorescent antibody test
fluorescent dyes, fluorescein
direct test: presence of antigen, to identify small numbers of bacteria, not quantitative- RABIES, GROUP A STREP
indirect test: similar, but 2 antibodies are used one is unlabeled and the second is labeled, advantage is that same labeled one can be used in different detection tests (cheaper, easier, faster)- SYPHILIS, MONO
corticosteroids (antiinflammatory), cytotoxic drugs (block cell division), immunophilins (block t cell response), lymphocyte depleting therapies (kill T cells)
prednisone, azathioprine, cyclosporine, glbulin
spontaneous, random, older women normally
single tissue (blood cells, endocrine, nervous)- blood doesn't clot, hemolytic anemia, IgM and IgG. endocrine- islets of langerhans in pancreas to diabetes and insulin, thryoid,
mother to infant, IgG, tremors, muscle wasting, bulging eyes, hot clammy skin
cytotoxic t cells attack myelin sheath of brain and cord neurons
deficits in vision, pseech, neuromuuuular function
lupus- SLE- loss of humoral and cell mediated responses, IC complexes, butterfly shaped rash, can ledad to glomerulonephritis or arthritis, cause unknown, corticosteroids and immunosup drugs
rheumatoid arthritis- type III, b cells against antigens or collagen, mast cells, damage to tissues nad joints, distortion and loss of motion, unknown cause, anti inflammatory and methotrexate
primary- infants: chronic granulomatous disease, SCID (lack of t cells and b cells, death), bruton type- death, digeorge- lack of t cells and death from viral infection
digeorge- no thymus, no t cells
scid- bubble boy, no immunity
acquired- developed later- stress, malnutrition, environment, AIDS- kills immune cells
opportunistic pathogens, catalase positive
infection when they breach barriers: it can evade phagocytosis, produce enzymes and toxins
common on skin surface, opportunistic infections
in nose and perineum
protein A- prevents phagocytosis by coating cell surface, coagulase- bound, blood clots, hide bacteria, catalase, hyaluronidase- bacteria spread, lipase- digest lipids to let it grow in oily stuff, staphylokinase- dissolves clots, b lactamase- break down penicillin to survive drugs